UPSC Prelims 2022 Solutions

With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements :

1. An increase in Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) indicates the appreciation of the rupee.
2. An increase in the Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) indicates an improvement in trade competitiveness.
3. An increasing trend in domestic inflation relative to inflation in other countries is likely to cause an increasing divergence between NEER and REER.

Which is the above statements are correct? [UPSC 2022]

REER and NEER can be defined as weighted indices, tabulated by RBI, depicting the change in domestic currency in comparison to currencies of India’s 36 trade partners.

The nominal effective exchange rate (NEER) is an unadjusted weighted average rate at which one country’s currency exchanges for a basket of multiple foreign currencies. The nominal exchange rate is the amount of domestic currency needed to purchase foreign currency.

Statement 1 and 3 are correct - NEER is a weighted index means, that countries with which India trades more are given greater weight in the index.  A decrease in this index denotes depreciation in the rupee’s value, an increase reflects appreciation.

In economics, the NEER is an indicator of a country’s international competitiveness in terms of the Foreign Exchange (Forex) market. Forex traders sometimes refer to the NEER as the trade-weighted currency index.

The Reserve Bank of India tabulates the rupee’s Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) in relation to the currencies of 36 trading partner countries.

The relative trade balance of a country's currency is compared against each of the existing countries in the index for calculating the weights. This exchange rate determines the specific currencies' value compared to other major currencies in the index. The nominal effective exchange rate (NEER) of a currency is its value compared with a weighted average of other foreign currencies. The real effective exchange rate of a currency is calculated by adjusting the nominal effective exchange rate to include price indices and other trends. Basically, the real effective exchange rate is the nominal effective exchange rate minus the price inflation or labour cost inflation. To compute the REER of a country's currency, the NEER is to be adjusted by the appropriate foreign price level and it is to be deflated by the home country's price level. REER indicates the price a consumer pays for buying an imported product. It includes the tariffs and other transaction costs involved in importing the product.

Statement 2 is incorrect - The real effective exchange rate is a measure of the comparative health of a nation's currency against the currency of the nations it trades with. REER is used to determine whether a nation's currency is undervalued or overvalued or fairly valued, allowing the nation’s central bank to adjust its currency accordingly.

REER is used as an index to measure the competitiveness of a country’s trade with its trade partners. A high REER reflects that the country is uncompetitive in trade and the country has to pay more for the products they export, and at the same time are paying less for the products that the country is importing.

The REER can be adjusted by changing the weightage of trade, and also by modifying the real exchange rate of the underlying currency. By bringing the REER lower, better trade competitiveness is ensured. But doing so by depreciating the real exchange rate is not always a good idea.

With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements :

1. If the inflation is too high, Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is likely to buy government securities.
2. If the rupee is rapidly depreciating, RBI is likely to sell dollars in the market.
3. If interest rates in the USA or European Union were to fall, that is likely to induce RBI to buy dollars.

Which of the statements given above are correct?[UPSC 2022]

Statement 1 is incorrect – Government Securities are debt instruments issued by the government to borrow money. The two key categories are treasury bills – short-term instruments which mature in 91 days, 182 days, or 364 days, and dated securities – long-term instruments, which mature anywhere between 5 years and 40 years.

A central bank such as the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), periodically intervenes in the debt market to influence the interest rates and rate of inflation in the economy. If RBI feels inflation is too high, it will sell government securities, and suck money out of the system. This act will push up interest rates in the economy, and businesses will cut back on capital expenditure financed by loans, reducing the demand for money.

On the other hand, if the central bank feels the economy is heading towards a recession, it will buy government securities from the banks, and inject money into the system. The additional availability of money will bring down interest rates.

Statement 2 is correct – Currency depreciation is a fall in the value of a currency in a floating exchange rate system. Rupee depreciation means that the rupee has become less valuable with respect to the dollar. It means that the rupee is now weaker than what it used to be earlier. For example: USD 1 used to equal Rs. 70, now USD 1 is equal to Rs. 77, implying that the rupee has depreciated relative to the dollar i.e. it takes more rupees to purchase a dollar.

Central banks also intervene periodically in foreign exchange markets. If the rupee is rapidly depreciating, RBI will sell dollars in the market. This will increase the supply of dollars and the demand for rupees, causing the rupee price of the dollar to come down. On the contrary, if the rupee is rapidly appreciating, RBI will buy dollars and inject rupees into the economy. This will increase the demand for dollars and the supply of rupees, thereby leading to an increase in the rupee price of the dollar.

If RBI sells dollars to stem a depreciating rupee, it will reduce the supply of money in the domestic economy. This can cause interest rates to rise. To prevent this, after selling dollars, the RBI can buy government securities and inject rupees into the economy. This is called a sterilised intervention.

Similarly, if RBI buys dollars to prevent the rupee from appreciating, it will lead to an injection of money into the domestic economy. This will cause interest rates to fall. To prevent this, after buying dollars, RBI can sell government securities and suck money out of the economy. This too is a sterilised intervention.

Statement 3 is correct - If interest rates in the US or the EU were to fall, FIIs will ramp up investments in India. The resultant demand for rupees will cause the rupee to appreciate. In response, RBI will buy dollars and inject rupees into the system. In both these cases, RBI may choose to intervene in a sterilised or unsterilised fashion.

With reference to the Indian economy what are the advantages of “Inflation-Indexed Bonds (IIBs)”?

1. Government ‘can reduce the coupon rates on its borrowing by way of IIBs
2. IIBs provide protection to investors from uncertainty regarding inflation.
3. The interest received as well as capital gains on IIBs are not taxable.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Inflation-Indexed Bonds (IIBs) are government-issued bonds that guarantee a steady yield regardless of the amount of inflation in the economy. Inflation-Indexed Bonds are designed to provide a hedge and protect investors against macroeconomic risks in a given economy. The issue of IIBs has taken on new significance in the face of rising inflation

Statements 1 and 2 are correct - Inflation-Indexed Bonds (IIB) provide a continuous return to investors regardless of the amount of inflation in the economy. The real coupon interest rate on IIBs is fixed, but the nominal principal value is adjusted for inflation.

• Adjusted principal = [(inflation index at a given point of time) divided by (inflation index at the time of deposit) multiplied by (principal amount)]
• Interest being paid = [Adjusted principal multiplied by coupon rate]
• On the modified principal value, periodic coupon payments will be issued. In this way, both the principal and the coupon payment will be protected from inflation.

When the bond matures, the adjusted principal or face value, whichever is greater, will be paid.

IIBs are classified as government securities (G-Sec) and hence qualify for repo transactions, as well as SLR status (i.e., they are eligible to be kept as part of Statutory Liquidity Ratio requirements of banks).

For Example - If the annual coupon is 6 per cent and the principal is Rs 100, the investor will be paid Rs 6 a year. Now, If the inflation index rises 10 per cent, the principal will become Rs 110. The coupon will remain 6 per cent, resulting in an interest payment of Rs 110 x 6 per cent = Rs 6.6

Salient Features of Inflation index bonds

• Inflation-indexed bonds were announced in the 2013 budget.
• Anyone can invest in these bonds, however, they are distributed in such a way that institutional investors (such as LICs and mutual funds) receive 80% of the bonds and retail investors receive 20%.
• These bonds are auctioned directly by the RBI. The government receives this money.
• Minimum and maximum investment amounts are 10,000 and 25 lakhs, respectively.
• These bonds can only be redeemed after ten years, or else a penalty will be imposed.
• These bonds can be traded in the secondary market (through the BSE, NSE, and other stock exchanges), however, if they are sold in the secondary market and profit is made, capital gains tax is to be paid.

Statement 3 is incorrect - Extant tax provisions will be applicable on interest payment and capital gains on IIBs.There will be no special tax treatment for these bonds.

Which of the following activities constitute the real sector in the economy?

1. Farmers harvesting their crops
2. Textile mills converting raw cotton into fabrics
3. A commercial bank lending money to a trading company
4. A corporate body issuing Rupee Denominated Bonds overseas

Select the correct answer using the code given below: [UPSC 2022]

The real economy concerns the production, purchase and flow of goods and services (like oil, bread and labour) within an economy. It is contrasted with the financial economy, which concerns the aspects of the economy that deal purely in transactions of money and other financial assets, which represent ownership or claims to ownership of real sector goods and services.

In the real economy, spending is considered to be "real" as money is used to effect non-notional transactions, for example, wages paid to employees to enact labour, bills paid for the provision of fuel, or food purchased for consumption. The transaction includes the deliverance of something other than money or a financial asset. In this way, the real economy is focused on the activities that allow human beings to directly satisfy their needs and desires, apart from any speculative considerations. Economists became increasingly interested in the real economy (and its interaction with the financial economy) in the late 20th century as a result of increased global financialization, described by Krippner as "a pattern of accumulation in which profits accrue primarily through financial channels rather than through trade and commodity production".

Therefore statements 1 and 2 are components of the real economy.

With reference to the expenditure made by an organisation or a company, which of the following statements is/are correct? 

1. Acquiring new technology is capital expenditure.
2. Debt financing is considered capital expenditure, while equity financing is considered revenue expenditure.

Select the correct answer using the code given below: [UPSC 2022]

Statement 1 is correct - An expenditure that either creates an asset (e.g., school building) or reduces liability (e.g., repayment of loan) is called capital expenditure.

Capital expenditure which leads to the creation of assets is

• expenditure on the purchase of land, buildings, machinery,
• investment in shares, loans by the Central government to state government, foreign governments and government companies, cash in hand and
• acquisition of valuables.

Such expenditures are incurred on long period development programmes, real capital assets and financial assets. This type of expenditure adds to the capital stock of the economy and raises its capacity to produce more in future.

Repayment of a loan is also capital expenditure because it reduces liability. These expenditures are met out of capital receipts of the government including capital transfers from the rest of the world.

Statement 2 is incorrect - When a company borrows money to be paid back at a future date with interest it is known as debt financing. It could be in the form of a secured as well as an unsecured loan. A firm takes up a loan to either finance working capital or an acquisition.

Equity financing is the process of raising capital through the sale of shares in a company. With equity financing comes an ownership interest for shareholders.

Both come under capital expenditure.

With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements:

1. A share of the household financial savings goes towards government borrowings.
2. Dated securities issued at market-related rates in auctions form a large component of internal debt.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?[UPSC 2022]

Statement 1 is correct - Article 266 of the Constitution defines the Public Account as being those funds that are received on behalf of the Government of India. Money held by the government in a trust — such as in the case of Provident Funds, Small Savings collections, income of government set apart for expenditure on specific objects like road development, primary education, reserve/special Funds, etc — are kept in the Public Account. Public Account funds do not belong to the government and have to be finally paid back to the persons and authorities that deposited them.  Parliamentary authorisation for such payments is not required. However, when money is withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund with the approval of Parliament and kept in the Public Account for expenditure for a specific purpose, it is submitted for a vote in Parliament.

There are five major heads of accounts under the Public Account — (i) Small Savings, Provident Fund and Other Accounts (ii) Reserve Funds (iii) Deposits and Advances (iv) Suspense and Miscellaneous and (v) Remittances.

Statement 2 is correct - The liabilities of the Centre have three segments of it, namely—Internal Liabilities, External Liabilities, and Public Account Liabilities. To the extent Public Debt of India is concerned, it includes only Internal and External liabilities incurred by the Central Government. The composition of the public debt is as briefed below:

Internal segment includes a variety of ‘instruments’ used by the Centre to mobilise resources inside the economy, namely—

• Dated Securities
• Treasury Bills
• 14-Day T-Bills
• Securities issued to International Financial Institutions
• Securities issued against ‘Small Savings’

The external segment of the public debt includes the external liabilities created through external borrowings by the Centre for its own uses (excluding those taken by the States). This constitutes a variety of ‘multilateral’ and ‘bilateral’ loans from IMF, World Bank, ADB, Sovereign Funds, foreign governments, etc. 

As per Economic Survey 2021-2022, dated securities form the large component of internal debt.

Consider the following statements :

1. Tight monetary policy of US Federal Reserve could lead to capital flight.
2. Capital flight may increase the interest cost of firms with existing External Commercial Borrowings (ECBs).
3. Devaluation of domestic currency decreases the currency risk associated with ECBs.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

• Statement 1 is correct: Tight monetary policy of the US federal Reserve could lead to capital flight. It is also called ‘Taper Tantrum’.
• Statement 2 is correct: Capital flight increases the interest rate of firms with Existing borrowings, as these firms now have to look out for internal lenders which will be ofering higher rates of interest.
• Statement 3 is incorrect: Devaluation of domestic currency will increase the risk with external commercial borrowings. It will increase the liability of domestic firms in terms of domestic currency against the same value of external borrowing.

Consider the following statements :

1. In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by Reserve Bank of India.
2. The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company.
3. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency.

Which of the statements given above are correct? [UPSC 2022]

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Securities and Exchange Board of India (‘SEBI’) regulates CRAs in India through the SEBI (Credit Rating Agencies) Regulations, 1999 and circulars issued under it. 

Statement 2 is correct: ICRA Limited is a public limited company that was set up in 1991 in Gurugram by leading financial/investment institutions, commercial banks and financial services companies as an independent and professional investment Information and Credit Rating Agency.. The company was formerly known as Investment Information and Credit Rating Agency of India Limited.

Statement 3 is correct: Brickwork Ratings is recognised as external credit assessment agency (ECAI) by Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to carry out credit ratings in India.

Brickwork Rating was established in 2007 and is promoted by Canara Bank. It offers ratings for bank loans, SMEs, corporate governance rating, municipal corporation, capital market instrument, and financial institutions.

With reference to the Banks Board Bureau (BBB)’, which of the following statements are correct?

1. The Governor of RBI is the Chairman of BBB.
2. BBB recommends for the selection of heads for Public Sector Banks.
3. BBB helps the Public Sector Banks in developing strategies and capital raising plans.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

[UPSC 2022]

Banks Board Bureau is an Autonomous Body of Government of India. Central Government notified the amendment to the Nationalised Banks (Management and Miscellaneous Provisions) Scheme, 1980 providing the legal framework for composition and functions of the Banks Board Bureau on March 23, 2016. The Bureau accordingly started functioning from April 01, 2016 as an autonomous recommendatory body. The functions of the Bureau outlined in the Section 7(C) of the Scheme and in subsequent amendments as per orders of Appointment Committee of the Cabinet are :-

a) To recommend the selection and appointment of Board of Directors in Mandated Institutions (Whole Time Directors and Chairman);

b) To advise the Central Government on matters relating to appointments, confirmation or extension of tenure and termination of services of the Directors of mandated institutions;

c) To advise the Central Government on the desired management structure of mandated institutions, at the level of Board of Directors and senior management; Statement 2 is correct.

d) To advise the Central Government on a suitable performance appraisal system for mandated institutions;

e) To build a data bank containing data relating to the performance of mandated institutions and its officers;

f) To advise the Central Government on the formulation and enforcement of a code of conduct and ethics for managerial personnel in mandated institutions.

g) To advise the Central Government on evolving suitable training and development programs for managerial personnel in mandated institutions.

h) To help the banks in terms of developing business strategies and capital raising plan and the like; Statement 3 is correct.

i) Any other work assigned by the Government in consultation with Reserve Bank of India.

Statement 1 is incorrect: Bhanu Pratap Sharma is the Chairman, Banks Board Bureau. He is a retired IAS officer (1981 Batch) from Bihar Cadre. 

With reference to Convertible Bonds, consider the following statements :

1. As there is an option to exchange the bond for equity, Convertible Bonds pay a lower rate of interest.
2. The option to convert to equity affords the bondholder a degree of indexation to rising consumer prices.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ? [UPSC 2022]

A convertible bond is a fixed-income corporate debt security that yields interest payments, but can be converted into a predetermined number of common stock or equity shares. The conversion from the bond to stock can be done at certain times during the bond's life and is usually at the discretion of the bondholder. Due to the option to convert the bond into common stock, they offer a lower coupon rate. Hence statement 1 is correct.

Governments might use indexation as a way to potentially alleviate the negative effects inflation can have on the recipients of transfer payments and entitlements. Social Security payments, for example, are indexed to the annual increase in the Consumer Price Index.

In India, which one of the following is responsible for maintaining price stability by controlling inflation ?

[UPSC 2022]

Option D is correct:India started inflation stabilisation (informed targeting at WPI) by the early 1970s. It was in 1973 that inflation crossed the 20 per cent mark on account of the international oil price rise and the government (the Indira Gandhi Government) devised a severe anti-inflation package which included directly restricting the disposable incomes of the people (this measure was used for the first time in India ). The package had an impact and by March 1975 the inflation calmed down to 5.7 per cent. This was the time when the RBI was given a new function ‘inflation stabilisation’ and India entered the era of monetary controls for inflation.

With reference to Non-Fungible Tokens (NFTs), consider the following statements :

1. They enable the digital representation of physical assets.
2. They are unique cryptographic tokens that exist on a blockchain.
3. They can be traded or exchanged at equivalency and therefore can be used as a medium of commercial transactions.

Which of the statements given above are correct? [UPSC 2022]

Non-fungible tokens (NFTs) are cryptographic assets on a blockchain with unique identification codes and metadata that distinguish them from each other. Unlike cryptocurrencies, they cannot be traded or exchanged at equivalency. This differs from fungible tokens like cryptocurrencies, which are identical to each other and, therefore, can serve as a medium for commercial transactions. Statement 2 is correct and statement 3 in incorrect.

NFTs shift the crypto paradigm by making each token unique and irreplaceable, thereby making it impossible for one non-fungible token to be equal to another. They are digital representations of assets and have been likened to digital passports because each token contains a unique, non-transferable identity to distinguish it from other tokens. They are also extensible, meaning you can combine one NFT with another to “breed” a third, unique NFT.  Statement 1 is correct

In India, which one of the following compiles information on industrial disputes, closures, retrenchments and lay-offs in factories employing worker?

[UPSC 2022]

Statement C is correct: Labour Bureau has been bringing out Statistics on Industrial Disputes, Closures, Retrenchments and Lay-offs in India, based on the voluntary returns received every month from the Labour Departments of the States and Union Territories and the Regional Labour Commissioners

In India, what is the role of the Coal Controller’s Organization (CCO) ?

1. CCO is the major source of Coal Statistics in Government of India.
2. It monitors progress of development of Captive Coal/Lignite blocks.
3. It hears any objection to the Government’s notification relating to acquisition of coal-bearing areas.
4. It ensures that coal mining companies deliver the coal to end users in the prescribed time.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

[UPSC 2022]

Under Collection of Statistics Act, 2008 -

• Coal Controller has been made the statistical authority with respect to coal and lignite statistics. Entrusted the responsibility of carrying out Annual Coal & Lignite survey and publishing of Provisional Coal Statistics and Coal Directory of India.
• Submission of monthly coal data to different ministries of central and state Govt., national and international organization. Statement 1 and 2 are correct.

Under Coal Bearing Area (Acquisition and Development) Act, 1957-

Coal Controller is the competent authority under this act to hear any objection to the Central Government’s Notification relating to acquisition of coal bearing land and to furnish his reports to Central Govt. Statement 3 is correct.

Statement 4 is incorrect:It cannot ensure that coal mining companies deliver the coal to end users in the prescribed time.

With reference to the "United Nations Credentials Committee", consider the following statements:

1. It is a committee set up by the UN Security Council and works under its supervision.
2. It traditionally meets in March, June and September every year.
3. It assesses the credentials of all UN members before submitting a report to the General Assembling for approval.

Which of the statements given below is/are correct?[UPSC 2022]

Statement 1 is incorrect- The United Nations Credentials Committee is set up by the General Assembly on the proposal of the President.

Statement 2 is incorrect- A Credentials Committee is appointed at the beginning of each regular session of the General Assembly.

Statement 3 is correct- The Committee is mandated to examine the credentials of representatives of Member States and to report to the General Assembly .The Committee reports to the Assembly on the credentials of representatives. It consists of nine members, who are appointed by the General Assembly on the proposal of the President.

Which one of the following statements best describes the 'Polar Code' ?[UPSC 2022]

Statement 1 is correct - International Code for Ships Operating in Polar Waters (Polar Code) covers the full range of design, construction, equipment, operational, training, search and rescue and environmental protection matters relevant to ships operating in the inhospitable waters surrounding the two poles. The Polar Code includes mandatory measures covering safety part (part I-A) and pollution prevention (part II-A) and recommendatory provisions for both (parts I-B and II-B).

Polar Code is International Maritime Organization's International Code for Ships Operating in Polar Waters .

So, option A is correct answer.

With reference to the United Nations General Assembly, consider the following statements:

1. The UN General Assembly can grant observer status to the non-member States.
2. Inter-governmental organisations can seek observer status in the UN General Assembly.
3. Permanent Observers in the UN General Assembly can maintain missions at the UN headquarters.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

[UPSC 2022]

Statement 1 is correct - The United Nations General Assembly may grant non-member statesObserver Status.

Statement 2 is correct - The United Nations General Assembly may grant international organizations and other entitiesObserver Status.

Statement 3 is correct - Permanent Observers may participate in the sessions and workings of the General Assembly and maintain missions at the UN Headquarters. The UN Charter and the General Assembly Rules of Procedure have no provisions related to granting permanent observer status. The process is described in a legal opinion of 15 August 2008, published in the 2008 United Nations Juridical Yearbook.

Option D is correct answer.

With reference to the "Tea Board" in India, consider the following statements:

1. The Tea Board is a statutory body.
2. It is a regulatory body attached to the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
3. The Tea Board’s Head Office is situated in Bengaluru.
4. The Board has overseas offices at Dubai and Moscow.

Which of the statements given above are correct?[UPSC 2022]

Statement 1 is correct - The present Tea Board is functioning as a statutory body set up under section 4 of the Tea Act 1953 was constituted on 1st April 1954.

Statement 2 is incorrect - The Tea Board is attached to the Central Government under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry.

Statement 3 is incorrect - The functional activities of the Tea Board's Head Office is located in Kolkata, West Bengal.

Statement 4 is correct - Currently Tea Board has two overseas offices located at Dubai, and Moscow.

Option D is the correct answer.

Which one of the following best describes the term "greenwashing" ?[UPSC 2022]

Option A is correct - Greenwashing is the process of conveying a false impression or providing misleading information about how a company's products are more environmentally sound. Greenwashing is considered an unsubstantiated claim to deceive consumers into believing that a company's products are environmentally friendly.

"Rapid Financing Instrument" and "Rapid Credit Facility" are related to the provisions of lending by which one of the following?[UPSC 2022]

The Rapid Financing Instrument (RFI) provides rapid financial assistance, which is available to all member countries facing an urgent balance of payments need. The RFI was created as part of a broader reform to make the IMF’s financial support more flexible to address the diverse needs of member countries. The RFI replaced the IMF’s previous emergency assistance policy and can be used in a wide range of circumstances.

The Rapid Credit Facility (RCF) provides rapid concessional financial assistance to low-income countries (LICs) facing an urgent balance of payments (BoP) need with no ex post conditionality where a full-fledged economic program is neither necessary nor feasible. The RCF was created under the Poverty Reduction and Growth Trust (PRGT) as part of a broader reform to make the Fund’s financial support more flexible and better tailored to the diverse needs of LICs, including in times of crisis. There are three windows under RCF: (i) a “regular window” for urgent BoP needs caused by wide range of sources including domestic instability, emergencies and fragility; (ii) an “exogenous shock window” for urgent BoP needs caused by a sudden, exogenous shock; and (iii) a “large natural disaster window” for urgent BoP needs arising from natural disasters where damage is assessed to be equivalent to or exceed 20 percent of the member’s GDP. Access under the RCF is subject to annual and cumulative limits, with higher access limits applying for the large natural disaster window. For higher-income countries that are non-PRGT eligible, a similar Rapid Financing Instrument (RFI) is available.

With reference to the “G20 Common Framework”, consider the following statements:

1. It is an initiative endorsed by the G20 together with the Paris Club.
2. It is an initiative to support Low Income Countries with unsustainable debt.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? [UPSC 2022]

The Common Framework for debt treatment beyond the DSSI (Common Framework) is an initiative endorsed by the G20, together with the Paris Club, last November to support, in a structural manner, Low-Income Countries with unsustainable debt.

The Common Framework considers debt treatment, on a case-by-case basis, driven by requests from eligible debtor countries. In response to a request for debt treatment, a Creditor Committee is convened. Negotiations are supported by the IMF and the World Bank, including through their Debt Sustainability Analysis.

The idea is that the debt treatment under the Common Framework should be accompanied by reforms ensuring the future sustainability of public debt, and consistent with the parameters of an Upper Credit Tranche (UCT) IMF-supported program.

The Common Framework represents a step-change for official creditors, bringing together the Paris Club and G20 official bilateral creditors in a coordinated process. Such an approach will allow addressing solvency challenges with a long-term perspective, ensuring the participation of private-sector creditors and of other official creditors through the comparability of the treatment clause included in the multilateral agreement, which implies that they provide debt treatments on terms as least as favourable.

Consider the following statements:

1. Bidibidi is a large refugee settlement in north-western Kenya.
2. Some people who fled from South Sudan civil war live in Bidibidi.
3. Some people who fled from civil war in Somalia live in Dadaab refugee complex in Kenya.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?[UPSC 2022]

Staement 1 is incorrect - Bidibidi Refugee Settlement is situated in Uganda’s northwestern region.

Statement 2 is correct - Bidibidi Refugee Settlement is home to an estimated 270,000 refugees, most of whom have fled the violence and insecurity in South Sudan.

Statement 3 is correct. Dadaab camps were established 30 years ago to accommodate Somalis fleeing their country’s civil war

Thus, option C is the correct answer.

Which one of the following situations best reflects “Indirect Transfers” often talked about in media recently with reference to India? [UPSC 2022]

Indirect transfers refer to situations where when foreign entities own shares or assets in India, the shares of such foreign entities are transferred instead of a direct transfer of the underlying assets in India

Consider the following countries.

1. Armenia

2. Azerbaijan

3. Croatia

4. Romania

5. Uzbekistan

Which of the above are members of the Organization of Turkic States? [UPSC 2022]

Organization of Turkic States (then called the Cooperation Council of Turkic Speaking States - Turkic Council) was established in 2009 as an intergovernmental organization, with the overarching aim of promoting comprehensive cooperation among Turkic States. Its four founding member states are Azerbaijan, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan and Türkiye. During the 7th Summit held in Baku in October 2019, Uzbekistan joined as a full member. Hungary received observer status at the Organization during its 6th Summit in Cholpon-Ata, Kyrgyz Republic in September 2018. And in lately in the 8th Summit held in November 2021, Turkmenistan joined as an Observer Member to the Organization.

Hence, statements 2 and 5 are correct, whereas statements 1,3 and 4 are incorrect. Therefore, option C is the correct answer.

Consider the following statements:

1. Gujarat has the largest solar park in India.
2. Kerala has a fully solar powered International Airport.
3. Goa has the largest floating solar photovoltaic project in India.

Which of the statements given below is/are correct? [UPSC 2022]

Statement 1 is incorrect-Bhadla solar parkin Bhadla village in Jodhpur district of Rajasthan, with a capacity of 2.25GW is India's largest.

Statement 2 is correct - Cochin International Airport, India's first airport built under a public-private-partnership (PPP) model, has scripted another chapter in aviation history by becoming the first airport in the world that operates completely on solar power.

Statement 3 is incorrect - Rewa Ultra Mega Solar Limited (RUMSL) is the Solar Park Project Developer (SPPD) for the development of Omkareshwar Reservoir floating solar project. The 600 MW capacity floating solar project on Omkareshwar reservoir is not only India's but also the world's largest floating solar project so far.

Option B is the correct option.

With reference to the United Nations Convention on the Law of Sea, consider the following statements.

1. A coastal state has the right to establish the breadth of its territorial sea up to a limit not exceeding 12 nautical miles, measured from baseline determined in accordance with the convention.
2. Ships of all states, whether coastal or land-locked, enjoy the right of innocent passage through the territorial sea.
3. The Exclusive Economic Zone shall not extend beyond 200 nautical miles from the baseline from which the breadth of the territorial sea in measure.

Which of the statements given below are correct ? [UPSC 2022]

Statement 1 is correct - The coastal states have sovereignty and jurisdiction over the territorial sea.The territorial seaextends seaward up to 12 nautical miles (nm) from its baselines.A nautical mile is based on the circumference of the earth and is equal to one minute of latitude. It is slightly more than a land measured mile (1 nautical mile = 1.1508 land miles or 1.85 km). These rights extend not only on the surface but also to the seabed, subsoil, and even airspace.

Statement 2 is correct - The coastal states’ rights are limited by the innocent passage through the territorial sea. There is no right of innocent passage through internal waters. The innocent passage refers to the passing through the waters which are not prejudicial to peace and security. However, the nations have the right to suspend the same.

Statement 3 is correct - Each coastal State may claim an EEZ beyond and adjacent to its territorial sea that extends seawardup to 200 nm from its baselines.

Thus, option D is the correct answer.

Consider the following pairs :

Wetland/Lake - Location

1. Hokera Wetland — Punjab

2. Renuka Wetland — Himachal Pradesh 

3. Rudrasagar Lake — Tripura

4. Sasthamkotta — Tamil Nadu 

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?[UPSC 2022]

Wetlands/Lakes: Location

• Hokera Wetland - Jammu and Kashmir.
• Renuka Wetland- Himachal Pradesh.
• Rudrasagar Lake- Tripura.
• Sasthamkotta - Kerala.

All the above sites are Ramsar Sites.

Consider the following : 

1. Aarogya Setu 

2. CoWIN

3. DigiLocker

4. DIKSHA

Which of the above are built on top of open-source digital platforms?[UPSC 2022]

Free and open-source software (FOSS) is software that is both free software and open-source software[a] where anyone is freely licensed to use, copy, study, and change the software in any way, and the source code is openly shared so that people are encouraged to voluntarily improve the design of the software. This is in contrast to proprietary software, where the software is under restrictive copyright licensing and the source code is usually hidden from the users.

We have seen some great examples of public services being delivered through systems that use FOSS building blocks, including Aadhaar, GSTN, Aarogya Setu, CoWIN, DIKSHA and the DigiLocker. 

• Aarogya Setu, India’s coronavirus ( COVID-19 ) contact-tracing and self-assessment app is now open source . 
• DigiLocker is an initiative by the government to offer Indian citizens a free platform to store and access important documents. The platform uses several open source technologies to deliver a mass solution and contributes back to the ever-growing community.
• DIKSHA is built using Sunbird ED, a fully functional solution building block available as open-source software under an MIT license and is part of Sunbird, a “Made in India, Made for the World” digital public good (DPG).
• Co-WIN, which is owned by the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, was developed using open-source software. This type of software allows users to modify the source code and distribute it.

Which one of the following statements best reflects the issue with Senkaku Islands, sometimes mentioned in the news ?

Option B is correct- The Senkaku Island dispute concerns a territorial dispute over a group of uninhabited islands. Eight uninhabited islands lie in the East China Sea. They have a total area of about 7 sq km and lie northeast of Taiwan.The Senkaku Islands became a Japanese territory on January 14, 1895 (28thYear of Meiji) by a decision of the country's cabinet that day. Before that, the islands had been terra nullius (no man's land). Through the cabinet decision, the islands came under the valid control of Japan, except for a period following Japan's defeat in the Pacific War when the islands were put under the military administration of the United States. Both Japan and China claim ownership of these islands.

With reference to Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission, consider the following statements:

1. Private and public hospitals must adopt it.
2. As it aims to achieve universal health coverage, every citizen of India should be part of it ultimately.
3. It has seamless portability across the country.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?[UPSC 2022]

The Union Cabinet, chaired by Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi has approved the national roll-out of the Central Sector Scheme, Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM) of the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, Government of India, with a budget of Rs.1,600 crore for five years. The National Health Authority (NHA) will be the implementing agency of the Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM).

Statement 1 is not correct: Participation in ABDM is voluntary including for citizens. Participation of a healthcare facility or an institution is also voluntary and shall be taken by the respective management (government or private management). However, once the management decides to register the respective healthcare facility/institution in ABDM, it is essential for all the healthcare professionals serving the said facility/institution to register in Healthcare Professionals Registry so that the institution can become fully integrated with the National Digital Health Ecosystem (NDHE).

Statement 2 is not correct and statement 3 is correct: Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission will connect the digital health solutions of hospitals across the country with each other. Based on the foundations laid down in the form of Jan Dhan, Aadhaar and Mobile (JAM) trinity and other digital initiatives of the government, Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM) is creating a seamless online platform through the provision of a wide range of data, information and infrastructure services, duly leveraging open, interoperable, standards-based digital systems while ensuring the security, confidentiality and privacy of health-related personal information.

Under the ABDM, citizens will be able to create their ABHA (Ayushman Bharat Health Account) numbers, to which their digital health records can be linked. This will enable the creation of longitudinal health records for individuals across various healthcare providers, and improve clinical decision making by healthcare providers. The mission will improve equitable access to quality healthcare by encouraging the use of technologies such as telemedicine and enabling national portability of health services.

Among the following crops, which one is the most important anthropogenic source of both methane and nitrous oxide?[UPSC 2022]

Rice cultivation - Global warming: Studies reveal that Rice fields are one of the most important sources of methane emission. Since water saturation of soil limits the transport of oxygen into the soil, anaerobic conditions occur in wetland rice fields as a result of soil submergence. The microorganisms undergo a redox reaction in these anaerobic conditions that leads to methanogenesis (the process of methane formation).

Under anaerobic conditions, methanogens produce methane from either of the following two methods:

• the reduction of carbon dioxide with hydrogen
• from the fermentation of acetate to methane and carbon dioxide.

Nitrogen-based fertilizers, which are used to increase the yield, cause the microbes present in the soil to convert nitrogen into nitrous oxide which is a major greenhouse gas.

Methane and nitrous oxide are the two greenhouse gases emitted from rice fields. When methane and nitrous oxide emissions were observed and compared with rice yield and physical changes of rice plants, it was found that drainage during the flowering period could reduce methane emissions. It was also observed that nitrous oxide emission was related to the number of drain days rather than the frequency of draining. Fewer drain days can help reduce nitrous oxide emissions.

"System of Rice Intensification” of cultivation, in which alternate wetting and drying of rice fields is practised, results in: 

1. Reduced seed requirement

2. Reduced methane production 

3. Reduced electricity consumption 

Select the correct answer using the code given below: [UPSC 2022]

System of Rice Intensification (SRI) includes a method called Alternate Wetting and Drying (AWD) which is a form of controlled or intermittent irrigation of the rice crops. The benefits of the programme include a reduction in methane emissions from traditional rice cultivation and a significant reduction in water consumption. The crop yields are maintained and not affected negatively, and the programme leads to the creation of community organisation and strengthening of networks through the formation of farmer groups. Typically, farmers use diesel to pump large amounts of water to flood their fields. With intermittent flooding, water pumps are run for shorter periods of time, reducing fuel consumption.

Benefits and Impacts of SRI 

• To increase paddy yields usually by 20-50% and sometimes 100% or more; 
• To reduce required seeds for transplanting by 60-80%; 
• To reduce the use of chemical fertilizers and agrichemicals; 
• To reduce irrigation water by 25-50%; 
• To reduce production costs usually by 10-20%; and
•  With increased output and reduced costs, farmers’ net income is increased.

Which one of the following lakes of West Africa has become dry and turned into a desert?[UPSC 2022]

Lake Fauibine once one of the largest lakes in West Africa has now turned into a desert with sand dunes. This was once one of the largest lakes in West Africa – Lake Fauibine. But since it has completely dried up, communities in northern Mali have had to defend their homes from encroaching sand dunes. And find new ways to scratch a living from the degraded soil.

Consider the following pairs:

Country - Important reason for being in the news recently

1. Chad - Setting up of permanent military base by China
2. Guinea - Suspension of Constitution and Government by military
3. Lebanon - Severe and prolonged economic depression
4. Tunisia - Suspension of Parliament by President

How many pairs given below are correctly matched? [UPSC 2022]

Statement 1 is incorrect - China is looking to create its first permanent military presence on the Atlantic Ocean, on the coast of the small African nation Equatorial Guinea, according to a report in The Wall Street Journal based on classified U.S. intelligence.

Statement 2 is correct - In Guinea, military leaders detained president, declaring dissolution of government and suspension of constitution in September 2021.

Statement 3 is correct - Lebanon is grappling with a deep economic crisis after successive governments piled up debt following the 1975-1990 civil war with little to show for their spending binge. Further, Lebanon's economy has almost collapsed since 2019.

Statement 4 is correct - Tunisian President Kais Saied dissolved the country’s suspended parliament, hours after lawmakers held a plenary session to revoke his measures in march 2022.

Thus, option C is correct answer.

Consider the following :

1. Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank

2. Missile Technology Control Regime

3. Shanghai Cooperation Organisation

India is a member of which of the above? [UPSC 2022]

Statement 1 is correct: AIIB began operations in 2016 with 57 founding Members (37 regional and 20 non-regional). By the end of 2020, it had 103 approved Members representing approximately 79 percent of the global population and 65 percent of global GDP. Twenty-one countries signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MOU) regarding the AIIB in Beijing, China: Bangladesh, Brunei, Cambodia, India, Kazakhstan, Kuwait, Laos, Malaysia, Myanmar, Mongolia, Nepal, Oman, Pakistan, Philippines, Qatar, Singapore, Sri Lanka, Thailand, Uzbekistan and Vietnam. India is one of the regional member.

Statement 2 is correct:The Missile Technology Control Regime (MTCR) is a multilateral export control regime. It is an informal political understanding among 35 member states that seek to limit the proliferation of missiles and missile technology. The regime was formed in 1987 by the G-7 industrialized countries. Membership had grown to 35 nations, with India joining on 27 June 2016 adhering to the MTCR Guidelines unilaterally.

Statement 3 is correct: The Shanghai Cooperation Organisation (SCO) is a permanent intergovernmental international organisation, the creation of which was announced on 15 June 2001 in Shanghai (China) by the Republic of Kazakhstan, the People's Republic of China, the Kyrgyz Republic, the Russian Federation, the Republic of Tajikistan, and the Republic of Uzbekistan. It was preceded by the Shanghai Five mechanism.The SCO currently comprises eight Member States (China, India, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Russia, Pakistan, Tajikistan and Uzbekistan).

Consider the following pairs:

Region often mentioned - Country in the news

1. Anatolia - Turkey

2. Amhara - Ethiopia

3. Cabo Delgado - Spain

4. Catalonia - Italy

How many pairs(region-country) given below are correctly matched?[UPSC 2022]

Statement 1 is correct -One of the great crossroads of ancient civilizations is a broad peninsula that lies between the Black Sea and the Mediterranean Sea. Called Asia Minor (Lesser Asia) by the Romans, the land is the Asian part of modern Turkey, across Thrace. It lies across the Aegean Sea to the east of Greece and is usually known by its ancient name Anatolia.

Statement 2 is correct - The Amhara Region is located in the northwestern part of Ethiopia between 8°45' and 13°45' North latitude and 36° 20' and 40° 20' East longitude.

Statement 3 is incorrect - Cabo Delgado is the northernmost province of Mozambique.

Statement 4 is incorrect - A roughly triangular region in Spain's far north-east corner, Catalonia is separated by the Pyrenean mountains from southern France, with which it has close historical and cultural ties.

Thus,option B is the correct option.

Consider the following statements :

1. Vietnam has been one of the fastest growing economies in the world in the recent years.
2. Vietnam is led by a multi-party political system.
3. Vietnam's economic growth is linked to its integration with global supply chains and focus on exports.
4. For a long time Vietnam's low labour costs and stable exchange rates have attracted global manufacturers.
5. Vietnam has the most productive e-service sector in the Indo-Pacific region.

Which of the statements given above are correct? [UPSC 2022]

1. Statement 1 is correct:As per World Bank's report, Vietnam’s economy is forecast to grow by about 4.8 percent in 2021. This will make its economy one of the fastest growing economies in the world
2. Statement 2 is incorrect:Vietnam is a socialist country under the leadership of the Vietnam Communist Party. The Party holds a national congress every five years to outline the country's overall direction and future course as well as to formalize policies. The National Assembly, which includes 498 members and is open to non-Party members, is the supreme organ of state and the only body with constitutional and legislative power. The President of the State and the Prime Minister are elected by the National Assembly.
3. Statement 3 is correct: Disruptions in industrial zones and supply chains caused by the broad-based COVID-19 resurgence have forced exporters to close factories temporarily or delay production.Vietnam’s economic growth is linked to its integration with global supply chains and focus on exports.
4. Statement 4 is correct:Vietnam has low labour costs and stable exchange rates which attract global investments.
5. Statement 5 is incorrect:In addition to analyzing the recent trends of the economy, this edition, titled “Digital Vietnam - The Path to Tomorrow”, focuses on what Vietnam needs to do to realize its ambition of becoming one of the most advanced digital economies in the world. 

With reference to Indian laws about wildlife protection, consider the following statements.

1. Wild animals are the sole property of the government.
2. When a wild animal is declared protected, such animal is entitled for equal protection whether it is found in protected areas or outside.
3. Apprehension of a protected wild animal becoming a danger to human life is sufficient ground for its capture or killing.

Which of the statements given below is/are correct?[UPSC 2022]

Statement 1 is correct - In a significant verdict, the Bombay High Court has ruled that wild animals including tiger should be treated as "government property for all purposes" and any damage caused by them should be compensated by the Government.

Statement 2 is correct - The law governing the subject of wildlife, the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, does not discriminate between animals found in protected areas and outside. It provides for equal protection for wild animals irrespective of where they are found.

Statement 3 is incorrect- Only if the wild animal becomes a danger to human life or is diseased or disabled beyond recovery can it be allowed to be captured or killed by the competent authority, the Chief Wildlife Warden of the State. This provision is applicable to wild animals listed in Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, which includes leopards. Mere apprehension or fear that a wild animal could endanger human life is not a ground for capture or killing.

Thus, option A is the correct option.

Consider the following statements:

1. The India Sanitation Coalition is a platform to promote sustainable sanitation and is funded by the Government of India and the World Health Organization.
2. The National Institute of Urban Affairs is an apex body of the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs ‘in Government of India and provides innovative solutions to address the challenges of Urban India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? [UPSC 2022]

Statement 1 is incorrect:India Sanitation Coalition (ISC), launched in June 2015, at Federation of Indian Chamber Commerce and Industry (FICCI), enables and supports safe and sustainable sanitation by bringing multiple organizations on a common platform through a range of catalytic actions. ISC hosts the India chapter of Sustainable Sanitation Alliance (SuSanA) in partnership with the “7 coalition members. The next three years' chapter is being run in partnership with Water for People.

In collaboration with IRC and TARU Leading edge, ISC convenes Insights events which address key issues on sanitation by the way of round tables, seminars and keynote speeches and a synthesis paper is issued post each event for best practice dissemination.

Statement 2 is incorrect: The National Institute of Urban Affairs (NIUA) is India’s leading national think tank on urban planning and development. NIUA was appointed as an apex body to support and guide the Government of India in its urban development plans. Since then, it has worked closely with the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs, alongside other government and civil sectors, to identify key areas of research, and address the lacunae in urban policy and planning. With a team spanning planners, engineers, researchers, architects and analysts, the Institute provides cross disciplinary expertise and technical assistance for city and state-level projects, as well as developing toolkits and customised training programmes to strengthen the capacity of local and regional, and governing agencies. In its aims of enriching and expanding urban knowledge bases within the country, its work today addresses 6 major thematic concerns:

• Urbanization & Economic Growth
• Urban Governance (Digital) & Municipal Finance
• Urban Infrastructure & Built Environment
• Environment, Climate Change & Resilience
• Social Development (Inclusive and sustainable cities)

The “Miyawaki method” is well known for the: [UPSC 2022]

With the development of the method, urban afforestation popularised with the transformation of backyards into mini-forests. Japanese botanist Akira Miyawaki developed miyawaki technique to build dense and native forests in a short span of time. He monitored the planting of over 1,500 forests in his lifetime.

In the miyawaki method, trees (only native species) are planted close to each other in the same area to save space and saplings help each other to grow and block sunlight from reaching the ground. As saplings receive sunlight from the top and grow upward, rather than sideways. It helps in the prevention of the growth of weeds.

The best part of the technique is that after three years saplings become maintenance-free or self-sustainable and also ensure 10 times faster growth of the plant and 30 times denser than usual. It takes between 200 to 300 years to form a forest through the conventional method while this technique can create a forest in 20 to 30 years.

Which of the following isnota bird?[UPSC 2022]

Mahseer—a large freshwater fish also called the tiger of the water and found only in the Cauvery river basin.

The Indian nightjar species are nocturnal birds with long pointed wings and short legs.

The Spoonbill is a unique aquatic bird with an odd-shaped, flattened beak.

White Ibises are large wading birds with football-shaped bodies.

With reference to "Gucchi" sometimes mentioned in the news, consider the following statements: 

1. It is a fungus. 

2. It grows in some Himalayan forest areas. 

3. It is commercially cultivated in the Himalayan foothills of north-eastern India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?[UPSC 2022]

Guchhi mushroom is a species of fungus in the family Morchellaceae of the Ascomycota. It grows in Himalayan foothills. The mushrooms cannot be cultivated commercially and grow in conifer forests across temperature regions, and the foothills in Himachal Pradesh, Uttaranchal, Jammu and Kashmir. 

Consider the following statements : 

1. “The Climate Group” is an international non-profit organization that drives climate action by building large networks and runs them.
2. The International Energy Agency in partnership with the Climate Group launched a global initiative “EP100". 
3. EP100 brings together leading companies committed to driving innovation in energy efficiency and increasing competitiveness while delivering on emission reduction goals. 
4. Some Indian companies are members of EP100.
5. The International Energy Agency is the Secretariat to the “Under2 Coalition".

Which of the statements given above are correct?[UPSC 2022]

Statement 1 is correct - CLIMATE GROUP is an international non-profit founded in 2003, with offices in London, New York, New Delhi, Amsterdam and Beijing. Its mission is to drive climate action. Fast. This group builds and runs networks.

Statement 2 is incorrect and Statement 3 is correct - EP100 is a global initiative led by the international non-profit Climate Group, bringing together over 120 energy smart businesses committed to measuring and reporting on energy efficiency improvements.

Statement 4 is correct - Mahindra and Mahindra became the first Indian company to join the EP100 initiative.

Statement 5 is incorrect - Climate Group is the Secretariat to the Under2 Coalition and works with governments to accelerate climate action through four work streams:

• Pathways
• Policy action
• Transparency
• Diplomacy 

"Climate Action Tracker" which monitors the emission reduction pledges of different countries is a:[UPSC 2022]

The Climate Action Tracker is an independent scientific analysis that tracks government climate action and measures it against the globally agreed Paris Agreement aim of "holding warming well below 2°C and pursuing efforts to limit warming to 1.5°C." A collaboration of two organisations, Climate Analytics and NewClimate Institute, the CAT has been providing this independent analysis to policymakers since 2009.

CAT quantifies and evaluates climate change mitigation targets, policies and action. It also aggregates country action to the global level, determining likely temperature increases during the 21st century using the MAGICC climate model. CAT further develops sectoral analysis to illustrate the required pathways for meeting the global temperature goals.

With reference to Web 3.0, consider the following statements : 

1. Web 3.0 technology enables people to control their own data.
2. In Web 3.0 world, there can be blockchain-based social networks.
3. Web 3.0 is operated by users collectively rather than a corporation.

Which of the statements given above are correct?[UPSC 2022]

Statement 1 is correct - Web 3.0 technology enables people to control their own data. In a Web3 world, people control their own data and bounce around from social media to email to shopping using a single personalized account, creating a public record on the blockchain of all of that activity.

Statement 2 is also correct - In the Web 3.0 world, there can be blockchain-based social networks. Web3 will mean that sharing photos, communicating with friends and buying things online will no longer be synonymous with Big Tech companies but be done through a multitude of small competing services on the blockchain — where, for instance, every time you post a message, you earn a token for your contribution, giving you both ownership stake in the platform and one day a way to cash in.

Statement 3 is also correct - Web 3.0 is operated by users collectively, rather than a corporation. People are given "tokens" for participating. The tokens can be used to vote on decisions, and even accrue real value.

With reference to “Software as a Service (SaaS)", consider the following statements : 

1. SaaS buyers can customise the user interface and can change data fields.
2. SaaS users can access their data co through their mobile devices.
3. Outlook, Hotmail and Yahoo! Mail are forms of SaaS.

Which of the statements given above are correct?[UPSC 2022]

Software-as-a-Service (SaaS)—also known as cloud based software— is a method of software delivery that allows data to be accessed from any device with an internet connection and a web browser. In this web-based model, software vendors host and maintain the servers, databases, and the code that makes up an application.

Statement 1 is correct - This web-based software is flexible enough to be modified for specific business uses but also for individual users. Buyers can customize the user interface (UI) to change the look and feel of the program, as well as modify specific areas, such as data fields, to alter what data appears. Several business process features can also be turned off and on at will. Users can often tweak their own personal workspace, such as a dashboard or task list, to show only the information they need to see and optimize their unique work style. Today both on-premise and SaaS systems can be customized from top to bottom for each client, but cloud-based software still offers far more agility and flexibility for the average company.

Statement 2 is correct - Since SaaS applications are accessed through a web browser, they can be accessed from any internet-enabled device, at any location, and with any operating system (from Windows/macOS to iOS/Android).

Statement 3 is also correct - If you have used a web-based email service such as Outlook, Hotmail or Yahoo! Mail, then you have already used a form of SaaS. With these services, you log into your account over the Internet, often from a web browser. The email software is located on the service provider’s network and your messages are stored there as well. You can access your email and store messages from a web browser on any computer or Internet-connected device.

Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the “Fractional Orbital Bombardment System” often talked about in media?[UPSC 2022]

Fractional Orbital Bombardment System (FOBS): The idea behind FOBS is, that a warhead is put into a stable orbit and it deorbits over the target. If the target and the launch position are lined up and the warhead keeps going round, it will complete a circle. Obviously, with the earth moving during this, it is more of a spiral than a ring, but the horizontal movement is countered in such a way that the warhead still goes over the target. The real point is that missile can be flown directly to the target, or it is fired in the opposite direction the other way around the planet and still arrive at the target from the opposite direction over the south pole instead of the north pole, where almost all of North America’s early warning systems are pointed. More importantly, the warhead can remain in orbit for days or months so that when the weapon deorbits and attacks its target or simply explodes in orbit, an EMP pulse is generated, which initiates an attack.

Which one of the following is the context in which the term “qubit” is mentioned?[UPSC 2022]

The phrase ‘quantum supremacy’ was coined in the year 2011 by John Preskill, Professor of Theoretical Physics at the California Institute of Technology.

Quantum supremacy refers to a problem-solving process by the quantum computer that cannot be solved by a classical computer in its normal lifetime. The concept is related to the speed at which a quantum computer performs.

Quantum computers are different from binary digital electronic computers that are based on transistors (a semiconductor device used to amplify or switch electronic signals and electrical power). The common digital computing requires the data to be encoded into binary digits (bits), each of which is always in one of two definite states (0 or 1).

Quantum computation uses quantum bits (qubits).

Quantum Bit (Qubit)

• A quantum bit (qubit) is the smallest unit of quantum information, which is the quantum analog of the regular computer bit, used in the field of quantum computing.
• They operate according to two key principles of quantum physics: superposition and entanglement.? Superposition means that each qubit can represent both a ‘1’ and a ‘0’ at the same time.
• Entanglement means that qubits in a superposition state can be correlated with each other; that is, the state of one qubit (whether it is a 1 or a 0) can depend on the state of another qubit. It means that particles remain connected so that actions performed on one affect the other, even when separated by great distances. The phenomenon so riled Albert Einstein that he called it "spooky action at a distance."
• Using these two principles, qubits can act as more sophisticated switches, enabling quantum computers to function in ways that allow them to solve difficult problems that are unmanageable using today’s computers.

Consider the following statements : 

1. Biofilms can form on medical implants within human tissues.
2. Biofilms can form on food and food processing surfaces.
3. Biofilms can exhibit antibiotic resistance.

 Which of the statements given above are correct?[UPSC 2022]

Biofilm is an association of micro-organisms in which microbial cells adhere to each other on living or non-living surfaces within a self-produced matrix of extracellular polymeric substances.

Biofilm formation is a multi-step process starting with attachment to a surface then the formation of a micro-colony that leads to the formation of a three-dimensional structure and finally ending with maturation followed by detachment. During biofilm formation, many species of bacteria are able to communicate with one another through a specific mechanism called quorum sensing. It is a system of stimuli to coordinate different gene expressions.

Bacterial biofilm is less accessible to antibiotics and the human immune system and thus poses a big threat to public health because of its involvement in a variety of infectious diseases. Statement 3 is correct.

Biofilms may form on living or non-living surfaces and can be prevalent in natural, industrial and hospital settings. Biofilms can be present on the teeth of most animals as dental plaque, where they may cause tooth decay and gum disease. Statement 1 is correct.

A combination of several pathogens can synergistically interact to form biofilms in the food industry. In food-processing environments, bacteria are able to exist as multispecies biofilms, from where both spoilage and pathogenic bacteria can contaminate food. For instance, in the fishing industry, fresh fish products can suffer from biofilm formation by mixed pathogenic species (Aeromonas hydrophila, L. monocytogenes, S. enterica, or Vibrio spp.), which can imply significant health and economic issues. Synergistic interactions have been observed in a fresh-cut produce processing plant, where E. coli interacted with Burkholderia caryophylli and Ralstonia insidiosa to form mixed biofilms. Statement 2 is correct.

In the context of vaccines manufactured to prevent COVID-19 pandemic, consider the following statements : 

1. The Serum Institute of India produced COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using mRNA platform.
2. Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using vector based platform.
3. COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen based vaccine.

Which of the statements given above are correct?[UPSC 2022]

Covishield has been developed by Oxford University in collaboration with AstraZeneca. Serum Institute of India is their manufacturing and trial partner. Covishield uses a replication-deficient chimpanzee viral vector based on a weakened version of a common cold virus (adenovirus) that causes infections in chimpanzees and contains the genetic material of the SARS-CoV-2 virus spike protein. Covishield, Oxford-AstraZeneca, Janssen (J&J) and Sputnik V and Sputnik Lite use viral vector platform.

While mRNA vaccine uses genetically engineered messenger RNA created in a laboratory to teach our cells how to make a harmless variant of the spike protein that is found on the surface of the Covid-19 virus. Pfizer-BioNTech and Moderna use this technology to fight off the virus. Statement 1 is incorrect.

Sputnik V is the world's first registered vaccine based on a well-studied human adenovirus vector platform. Statement 2 is correct.

Covaxin is India’s first indigenous vaccine against Covid-19. It has been developed by Bharat Biotech in collaboration with the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) and the National Institute of Virology. Covaxin is an inactivated vaccine. This destroys the pathogen’s ability to replicate but keeps it intact so that the immune system can still recognise it and produce an immune response.Statement 3 is also correct.

Consider the following statements :

1. High clouds primarily reflect solar radiation and cool the surface of the Earth.
2. Low clouds have a high absorption of infrared radiation emanating from the Earth’s surface and thus cause warming effect.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? [UPSC 2022]

Statement 1 is incorrect -The study of clouds, where they occur, and their characteristics, play a key role in the understanding of climate change. Low, thick clouds primarily reflect solar radiation and cool the surface of the Earth.

Statement 2 is incorrect - High, thin clouds primarily transmit incoming solar radiation; at the same time, they trap some of the outgoing infrared radiation emitted by the Earth and radiate it back downward, thereby warming the surface of the Earth. Whether a given cloud will heat or cool the surface depends on several factors, including the cloud's altitude, its size, and the make-up of the particles that form the cloud. The balance between the cooling and warming actions of clouds is very close although, overall, averaging the effects of all the clouds around the globe, cooling predominates.

Option D is correct answer.

The term “Levant” often heard in the news roughly corresponds to which of the following regions?[UPSC 2022] 

The Levant is an approximate historical geographical term referring to a large area in the Eastern Mediterranean region of Western Asia. In its narrowest sense, which is in use today in archaeology and other cultural contexts, it is equivalent to a stretch of land bordering the Mediterranean in southwestern Asia, i.e. the historical region of Syria ("greater Syria"), which includes present-day Syria, Lebanon, Jordan, Israel, Palestine and most of Turkey southwest of the middle Euphrates. Its overwhelming characteristic is that it represents the land bridge between Africa and Eurasia. In its widest historical sense, the Levant included all of the Eastern Mediterranean with its islands; that is, it included all of the countries along the Eastern Mediterranean shores, extending from Greece to Cyrenaica in eastern Libya.

Consider the following countries : 

1. Azerbaijan 

2. Kyrgyzstan 

3. Tajikistan 

4. Turkmenistan 

5. Uzbekistan 

Which of the above have borders with Afghanistan?[UPSC 2022]

Afghanistan is bounded to the east and south by Pakistan (including those areas of Kashmir administered by Pakistan but claimed by India), to the west by Iran, and to the north by the Central Asian states of Turkmenistan, Uzbekistan, and Tajikistan. 

With reference to India, consider the following statements :

1. Monazite is a source of rare earths.
2. Monazite contains thorium.
3. Monazite occurs naturally in the entire Indian coastal sands in India.
4. In India, Government bodies only can process or export monazite.

Which of the statements given above are correct?[UPSC 2022]

Statement 1 is correct - The principal sources of Rare Earths are bastnaesite (a fluorocarbonate which occurs in carbonatites and related igneous rocks), xenotime (yttrium phosphate) commonly found in mineral sand deposits, loparite which occurs in alkaline igneous rocks and monazite (a phosphate). In India, monazite is the principal source of rare earths and thorium.

Statement 2 is correct - Thorium is mainly obtained from monazite and ilmenite in the beach sands along the coast of Kerala and Tamil Nadu. The world’s richest monazite deposits occur in the Palakkad and Kollam districts of Kerala, near Vishakhapatnam in Andhra Pradesh and the Mahanadi river delta in Odisha.

Statement 3 is incorrect - Monazite occurs in association with other heavy minerals such as ilmenite, rutile, zircon, etc. in concentrations of 0.4 – 4.3% of total heavies in the beach and inland placer deposits of the country. All Indian resources of Monazite are Andhra Pradesh, Gujarat, Jharkhand, Kerala, Maharashtra, Odisha, Tamil Nadu, and West Bengal., hence not entire Indian coastal sands in India.

Statement 4 is correct - Indian Rare Earth Limited (IREL), a Mini Ratna Company is a Government of India Undertaking under the Department of Atomic Energy (DAE) and KMML, a Kerala State Government Undertaking, is actively engaged in mining and processing of beach sand minerals from placer deposits.

In the northern hemisphere, the longest day of the year normally occurs in the:[UPSC 2022]

Summer Solstice - The summer solstice is the longest day of the year, meaning it experiences the maximum intensity of the sun’s rays and has the most hours of sunlight. The northern summer solstice falls on June 21.

At the summer solstice, the Sun travels the longest path through the sky, and that day, therefore, has the most daylight. When the summer solstice happens in the Northern Hemisphere, the North Pole is tilted about 23.4° (23°27´) toward the Sun. Because the Sun’s rays are shifted northward from the Equator by the same amount, the vertical noon rays are directly overhead at the Tropic of Cancer (23°27´ N). Six months later, the South Pole is inclined about 23.4° toward the Sun. On this day of the summer solstice in the Southern Hemisphere, the Sun’s vertical overhead rays progress to their southernmost position, the Tropic of Capricorn (23°27´ S).

Consider the following States :

1. Andhra Pradesh

2. Kerala

3. Himachal Pradesh

4. Tripura

How many of the above are generally known as tea-producing States?

Major tea producing states are Assam, hills of Darjeeling and Jalpaiguri districts, West Bengal, Tamil Nadu and Kerala. Apart from these, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Meghalaya,

Andhra Pradesh and Tripura are also tea-producing states in the country.

Consider the following pairs: 

Peak - Mountains

1. Namcha Barwa — Garhwal Himalaya

2. Nanda Devi — Kumaon Himalaya

3. Nokrek — Sikkim Himalaya 

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?[UPSC 2022]

Namcha Barwa is in an isolated part of southeastern Tibet rarely visited by outsiders. It stands inside the Great Bend of the Yarlung Tsangpo River as the river enters its notable gorge across the Himalayas, emerging as the Siang and becoming the Brahmaputra. On other hand, the Garhwal Himalayas are mountain ranges located in the Indian state of Uttarakhand

Kumaun Himalayas, a west-central section of the Himalayas in northern India, extends 200 miles (320 km) from the Sutlej River east to the Kali River. The range, comprising part of the Siwalik Range in the south and part of the Great Himalayas in the north, lies largely within the state of Uttarakhand, northwest of Nepal. It rises to 25,646 feet (7,817 metres) at Nanda Devi, the range’s highest peak.

The Nokrek Biosphere Reserve is located in the northeast of India on the Tura Range, which forms part of the Meghalaya Plateau (average altitude: 600 metres). 

Consider the following pairs:

Reservoirs - Status

1. Ghataprabha - Telangana

2. Gandhi Sagar - Madhya Pradesh

3. Indira Sagar - Andhra Pradesh

4. Maithon - Chhattisgarh

How many pairs given above are not correctly matched? [UPSC 2022]

• Ghataprabha- Karnataka
• Gandhi Sagar- Madhya Pradesh
• Indira Sagar – Madhya Pradesh
• Maithon- Jharkhand

This means only 1 is correctly matched, therefore 3 are not correctly matched. Option C is the answer.

Consider the following stateménts : 

1. Pursuant to the report of the H.N. Sanyal Committee, the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was passed.
2. The Constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court and the High Courts to punish for contempt of themselves.
3. The Constitution of India defines Civil Contempt and Criminal Contempt.
4. In India, the Parliament is vested with the powers to make laws on Contempt of Court.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?[UPSC 2022]

Statement 1 is correct - In 1962 a Committee headed by H.N. Sanyal, the then Solicitor General of India, was appointed by the Government of India to review and suggest modifications in the law of contempt of court. The Committee in its report said the summary jurisdiction to punish for contempt of court trenches upon two most important fundamental rights, namely, personal liberty and freedom of speech and expression, rights which are of vital importance in any democratic system and the law should be viewed mainly from that standpoint. The Sanyal Committee was of the opinion that the law of contempt of court must harmonise with the constitutional guarantee of freedom of expression and personal liberty.

Statement 2 is correct - The Supreme Court and High Court can punish any person for their contempt. Thus, their actions and decisions cannot be criticised and opposed by anybody. This power is vested in the Supreme Court to maintain its authority, dignity and honour, similarly is for the High court.

Statement 3 is incorrect - The Constitution's Article 129 shows that the Court can punish the contempt made against it. However, the expression, Contempt of Court has not been defined by the Constitution. Contempt of court is the power of the court to protect its own majesty and respect. The power is regulated but not restricted in the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971. In Article 215, the powers were conferred on High Courts as well.  According to the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971, contempt of court can either be civil contempt or criminal contempt.

Statement 4 is correct - In India it is the Parliament that has the power to legislate over Contempt of Court.

With reference to India, consider the following statements : 

1. Government law officers and legal firms are recognised as advocates, but corporate lawyers and patent attorneys are excluded from recognition as advocates.
2. Bar Councils have the power to lay down the rules relating to legal education and recognition of law colleges.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?[UPSC 2022]

Statement 1 is not correct: An emerging class of legal professionals engaged with various law-related activities—such as government law officers, corporate lawyers, law firms, law professors, legal researchers, and patent attorneys—have been excluded from recognition as advocates. Third, the judiciary has clarified the otherwise undefined concept of “practice of law” to include all forms of legal activities, including both litigious and non-litigious work, such as appearing in court, drafting, giving opinions, performing transactional work, consulting, arbitrating, mediating, filing vakalatnamas (power of attorney), and working as legal officers. Thus, “advocates” enrolled in bar councils enjoy exclusive monopoly over the right to practise law in all courts, tribunals, and other authorities in India.

Statement 2 is correct: The Advocates Act, 1961, enacted with the objective of creating “a unified Bar for the whole country with a monopoly in legal practice and autonomy in matters of professional management,” conferred the Bar Council of India (BCI) and SBCs with the power to self-regulate the profession and lay down rules relating to admission and enrolment, conditions of practice, standards of professional conduct and etiquette, disciplinary proceedings, legal education, recognition of law colleges, and welfare activities. These powers were granted to the bar councils to promote the administration of justice and uphold the dignity of the profession in the eyes of the common people.

Consider the following statements :

1. A bill amending the Constitution requires a prior recommendation of the President of India.
2. When a Constitution Amendment Bill is presented to the President of India, it is obligatory for the President of India to give his/her assent.
3. A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha by a special majority and there is no provision for joint sitting.

Which of the statements given above are correct? [UPSC 2022]

Article 368 in Part XX of the Constitution deals with the powers of Parliament to amend the Constitution and its procedure. It states that the Parliament may, in the exercise of its constituent power, amend by way of addition, variation or repeal any provision of the Constitution in accordance with the procedure laid down for the purpose.

Statement 1 is incorrect - An amendment of the Constitution can be initiated only by the introduction of a bill for the purpose in either House of Parliament and not in the state legislatures. The bill can be introduced either by a minister or by a private member and does not require prior permission from the President.

Statement 2 is correct - After duly passed by both the Houses of Parliament and ratified by the state legislatures, where necessary, the bill is presented to the President for assent. The President must give his assent to the bill. He can neither withhold his assent to the bill nor return the bill for reconsideration by the Parliament. After the President’s assent, the bill becomes an Act (i.e., a constitutional amendment act) and the Constitution stands amended in accordance with the terms of the Act.

Statement 3 is correct - The bill must be passed in each House by a special majority, that is, a majority of the total membership of the House and a majority of two-thirds of the members of the House present and voting. Each House must pass the bill separately. In case of a disagreement between the two Houses, there is no provision for holding a joint sitting of the two Houses for the purpose of deliberation and passage of the bill.

Consider the following statements :

1. The Constitution of India classifies the ministers into four ranks viz. Cabinet Minister, Minister of State with Independent Charge, Minister of State and Deputy Minister.
2. The total number of ministers in the Union Government, including the Prime Minister, shall not exceed 15 percent of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?[UPSC 2022]

Statement 1 is incorrect - The council of ministers consists of three categories of ministers, namely, cabinet ministers, ministers of state, and deputy ministers. The difference between them lies in their respective ranks, emoluments, and political importance. At the top of all these ministers stands the Prime Minister–the supreme governing authority of the country. But no such definition exists in the Constitution.

Statement 2 is correct - The total number of ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Council of Ministers shall not exceed 15% of the total strength of the Lok Sabha. This provision was added by the 91st Amendment Act of 2003.

Which of the following is/are the exclusive power(s) of Lok Sabha? 

1. To ratify the declaration of Emergency 

2. To pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers 

3. To impeach the President of India 

Select the correct answer using the code given below:[UPSC 2022]

Statement 1 is incorrect - If the President is satisfied that a grave emergency exists whereby the security of India or of any part of the territory thereof is threatened, whether, by war or external aggression or armed rebellion, he may, by Proclamation, make a declaration to that effect in respect of the whole of India or of such part of the territory. Every Proclamation issued under this article shall be laid before each House of Parliament.

Statement 2 is correct - Article 75 of the Constitution says that the council of ministers shall be collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha. It means that the ministry stays in office so long as it enjoys the confidence of the majority of the members of the Lok Sabha. In other words, the Lok Sabha can remove the ministry from office by passing a no-confidence motion. The motion needs the support of 50 members to be admitted. The Rajya Sabha cannot remove the council of ministers by passing a no-confidence motion. This is because the Council of Ministers is collectively responsible only to the Lok Sabha. But, the Rajya Sabha can discuss and criticise the policies and activities of the government

Statement 3 is incorrect - These charges should be signed by one-fourth of members of the House (that framed the charges), and a 14 days notice should be given to the President. After the impeachment resolution is passed by a majority of two-thirds of the total membership of that House, it is sent to the other House, which should investigate the charges. The President has the right to appear and to be represented in such an investigation. If the other House also sustains the charges and passes the impeachment resolution by a majority of two-thirds of the total membership, then the President stands removed from his office from the date on which the resolution is so passed.

With reference to anti-defection law in India, consider the following statements : 

1. The law specifies that a nominated legislator cannot join any political party within six months of being appointed to the House.
2. The law does not provide any time frame within which the presiding officer has to decide a defection case.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? [UPSC 2022]

Statement 1 is incorrect - A nominated member of a House becomes disqualified for being a member of the House if he joins any political party after the expiry of six months from the date on which he takes his seat in the House. This means that he may join any political party within six months of taking his seat in the House without inviting this disqualification. 

Statement 2 is correct - The law does not specify a time period for the Presiding Officer to decide on a disqualification plea. 

Consider the following statements: 

1. Attorney General of India and Solicitor General of India are the only officers of the Government who are allowed to participate in the meetings of the Parliament of India. 
2. According to the Constitution of India, the Attorney General of India submits his resignation when the Government which appointed him resigns. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?[UPSC 2022]

Statement 1 is incorrect - In the performance of his official duties, the Attorney General has the right of audience in all courts in the territory of India. Further, he has the right to speak and to take part in the proceedings of both the Houses of Parliament or their joint sitting and any committee of the Parliament of which he may be named a member, but without a right to vote. He enjoys all the privileges and immunities that are available to a member of Parliament.

In addition to the AG, there are other law officers of the Government of India. They are the solicitor general of India and the additional solicitor general of India. They assist the AG in the fulfilment of his official responsibilities. It should be noted here that only the office of the AG is created by the Constitution. In other words, Article 76 does not mention the solicitor general and additional solicitor general.

Statement 2 is incorrect - The Attorney General (AG) is appointed by the president. He must be a person who is qualified to be appointed a judge of the Supreme Court. In other words, he must be a citizen of India and he must have been a judge of some high court for five years or an advocate of some high court for ten years or an eminent jurist, in the opinion of the president. The term of office of the AG is not fixed by the Constitution. Further, the Constitution does not contain the procedure and grounds for his removal. He holds office during the pleasure of the president. This means that he may be removed by the president at any time. He may also quit his office by submitting his resignation to the president. Conventionally, he resigns when the government (council of ministers) resigns or is replaced, as he is appointed on its advice.

With reference to the writs issued by the Courts in India, consider the following statements: 

1. Mandamus will not lie against a private organisation unless it is entrusted with a public duty.
2. Mandamus will not lie against a Company even though it may be a Government Company.
3. Any public-minded person can be a petitioner to move the Court to obtain the Writ of Quo Warranto.

Which of the statements given above are correct?[UPSC 2022]

Statement 1 is incorrect and statement 2 is correct - Mandamus literally means ‘we command’. It is a command issued by the court to a public official asking him to perform his official duties that he has failed or refused to perform. It can also be issued against any public body, a corporation, an inferior court, a tribunal or government for the same purpose. The writ of mandamus cannot be issued

(a) against a private individual or body;

(b) to enforce departmental instruction that does not possess statutory force;

(c) when the duty is discretionary and not mandatory;

(d) to enforce a contractual obligation;

(e) against the president of India or the state governors; and

(f) against the chief justice of a high court acting in a judicial capacity.

Statement 3 is correct - Quo-Warranto in the literal sense, it means ‘by what authority or warrant’. It is issued by the court to enquire into the legality of the claim of a person to a public office. Hence, it prevents illegal usurpation of public office by a person. The writ can be issued only in case of a substantive public office of a permanent character created by a statute or by the Constitution. It cannot be issued in cases of ministerial office or private office. Unlike the other four writs, this can be sought by any interested person and not necessarily by the aggrieved person.

With reference to the proposals of Cripps Mission, consider the following statements:

1. The Constituent Assembly would have members nominated by the Provincial Assemblies as well as the Princely States.
2. Any Province, which is not prepared to accept the new Constitution would have the right to sign a separate agreement with Britain regarding its future status.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? [UPSC 2022]

The main proposals of the Cripps Mission were as follows:

1. An Indian Union with a dominion status would be set up; it would be free to decide its relations with the Commonwealth and free to participate in the United Nations and other international bodies.
2. After the end of the war, a constituent assembly would be convened to frame a new constitution. Members of this assembly would be partly elected by the provincial assemblies through proportional representation and partly nominated by the princes. Statement 1 is incorrect.
3. The British government would accept the new constitution subject to two conditions: (i) any province not willing to join the Union could have a separate constitution and form a separate Union, and (ii) the new constitution-making body and the British government would negotiate a treaty to effect the transfer of power and to safeguard racial and religious minorities. Statement 2 is correct.
4. In the meantime, defence of India would remain in British hands and the governor-general’s powers would remain intact.

With reference to the Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, consider the following statements : 

1. As per the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, the election of Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as the Speaker may fix.  
2. There is a mandatory provision that the election of a candidate as Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha shall be from either the principal opposition party or the ruling party.
3. The Deputy Speaker has the same power as of the Speaker when presiding over the sitting of the House and no appeal lies against his rulings. 
4. The well established parliamentary practice regarding the appointment of Deputy Speaker is that the motion is moved by the Speaker and duly seconded by the Prime Minister. 

Which of the statements given above are correct? [UPSC 2022]

Statement 1 is correct - The Deputy Speaker is elected by the Lok Sabha itself from amongst its members. He is elected after the election of the Speaker has taken place. The date of election of the Deputy Speaker is fixed by the Speaker. Whenever the office of the Deputy Speaker falls vacant, the Lok Sabha elects another member to fill the vacancy.

Statement 2 is incorrect - Upto the 10th Lok Sabha, both the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker were usually from the ruling party. Since the 11th Lok Sabha, there has been a consensus that the Speaker comes from the ruling party (or ruling alliance) and the post of Deputy Speaker goes to the main opposition party.

Statement 3 is correct - The Deputy Speaker performs the duties of the Speaker’s office when it is vacant. He also acts as the Speaker when the latter is absent from the sitting of the House. In both cases, he assumes all the powers of the Speaker. He also presides over the joint sitting of both the Houses of Parliament, in case the Speaker is absent from such a sitting. It should be noted here that the Deputy Speaker is not subordinate to the Speaker. He is directly responsible for the house.

Statement 4 is incorrect - At any time before noon on the day preceding the date so fixed, any member may give notice in writing, addressed to the Secretary-General, of a motion that another member be chosen as the Deputy Speaker of the House and the notice shall be seconded by a third member and shall be accompanied by a statement by the member whose name is proposed in the notice that the member proposed is willing to serve as Deputy Speaker 

 If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which one of the following statements best reflects the consequence of it? [UPSC 2022]

The Fifth Schedule of the Constitution deals with the administration and control of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes in any state except the four states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram.

The various features of administration contained in the Fifth Schedule are as follows:

1. Declaration of Scheduled Areas. Statement 1 is correct.
2. Executive Power of State and Centre
3. Tribes Advisory Council
4. Law applicable to Scheduled Areas

Which of the following are nitrogen-fixing plants? 

1. Alfalfa

2. Amaranth

3. Chickpea

4. Clover

5. Purslane (Kulfa)

6. Spinach

Select the correct answer using the code given below:[UPSC 2022]

Amaranth, spinach, and purslane are not nitrogen-fixing plants and we have to provide nitrogen through fertilizers for their proper growth and development.

Nitrogen fixation is the essential biological process and the initial stage of the nitrogen cycle. In this process, nitrogen in the atmosphere is converted into ammonia (another form of nitrogen) by certain bacterial species like Rhizobium, Azotobacter, etc. and by other natural phenomena.

Certain bacteria or prokaryotes are capable of converting atmospheric nitrogen to ammonia. This process is called biological nitrogen fixation. The enzyme nitrogenase converts dinitrogen to ammonia. Nitrogen-fixing bacteria may be free-living or symbiotic. Some of the free-living nitrogen fixers are Azotobacter, Beijernickia, Rhodospirillum, cyanobacteria, etc. Examples of symbiotic nitrogen fixers are Rhizobium (in the root nodules of legumes) and Frankia (in the root nodules of non-leguminous plants), etc.

A species of bacteria called Rhizobium helps in nitrogen fixation. These bacteria live in the roots of leguminous plants (e.g., pea and beans plants) and using certain types of enzymes, they help in fixing nitrogen in the soil. During this biological process, they convert the non-absorbable nitrogen form into a usable form. This form of nitrogen gets dissolved in the soil, and plants absorb the modified nitrogen from the soil. This is the reason behind farmers implementing crop rotation, where leguminous plants help to replenish nitrogen content in the soil without the necessity of fertilizers.

Nitrogen fixation by bacteria is an example of the symbiotic relationship between Rhizobium and leguminous plants. While bacteria fix nitrogen in the soil, plants provide them food.

With reference to polyethene terephthalate, the use of which is so widespread in our daily lives, consider the following statements : 

1. Its fibres can be blended with wool and cotton fibres to reinforce their properties.
2. Containers made of it can be used to store any alcoholic beverage.
3. Bottles made of it can be recycled into other products.
4. Articles made of it can be easily disposed of by incineration without causing greenhouse gas emissions.

Which of the statements given above are correct? [UPSC 2022]

Statement 1 is correct - Polyethylene Terephthalate (PET or PETE), a strong, stiff synthetic fibre and resin and a member of the polyester family of polymers. PET is spun into fibres for permanent-press fabrics and blow-moulded into disposable beverage bottles. PET is produced by the polymerization of ethylene glycol and terephthalic acid.

Statement 2 is incorrect and Statement 3 is correct - Polyethylene terephthalate which is also abbreviated as PET / PETE is mainly used to manufacture the packaging material for food products such as fruit and drinks containers. It is lightweight, transparent and also available in some colours. It is a member of the ester family so also called as polyester. It is a recyclable thermoplastic polymer with good strength, ductility, stiffness and hardness, therefore, can be processed through vacuum forming, injection moulding, compression moulding and blow moulding.

PET/PETE can also be recycled back to its original elements as well as into polyester fibres. These polyester fibres are used in the manufacturing of synthetic carpets, synthetic clothing and other textile products. PET fibres are wrinkle-free and less expensive therefore often mixed with natural fibres. It is also used for the manufacture of microwavable trays and for the packaging of microwavable meals, in containers for cosmetic products and pharmaceutical products.

Statement 4 is incorrect - The burning of plastics releases toxic gases like dioxins, furans, mercury and polychlorinated biphenyls (better known as BCPs) into the atmosphere, and poses a threat to vegetation, and humans and animal health.

Consider the following statements in respect of probiotics:

1. Probiotics are made of both bacteria and yeast.
2. The organisms in probiotics are found in foods we ingest but they do not naturally occur in our gut.
3. Probiotics help in the digestion of milk sugars.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?[UPSC 2022]

Statement 1 is correct - Probiotics are a combination of live beneficial bacteria and/or yeasts that naturally live in your body. Common probiotic bacteria can include lactobacillus and bifidobacterium. The most common yeast found in probiotics is saccharomyces boulardii. You have two kinds of bacteria constantly in and on your body — good bacteria and bad bacteria. Probiotics are made up of good bacteria that help keep your body healthy and working well. This good bacteria helps you in many ways, including fighting off bad bacteria when you have too much of it and helping you feel better.

Statement 2 is incorrect - Probiotics contain microorganisms, most of which are bacteria similar to the beneficial bacteria that occur naturally in the human gut.

Statement 3 is correct -  Benefits of Probiotics in a Nutshell

• Help the digestive system of the body
• Keeping bad bacteria from getting out of control and making one ill
• Create vitamins in the body
• Help support the cells that line your gut to prevent bad bacteria that you may have consumed from entering your blood.
• Breakdown and absorption of medications

If a major solar storm (solar flare) reaches the Earth, which of the following are the possible effects on the Earth?

1. GPS and navigation systems could fail.
2. Tsunamis could occur at equatorial regions.
3. Power grids could be damaged.
4. Intense auroras could occur over much of the Earth.
5. Forest fires could take place over much of the planet.
6. Orbits of the satellites could be disturbed.
7. Shortwave radio communication of the aircraft flying over polar regions could be interrupted.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:[UPSC 2022]

A solar flare is an intense burst of radiation coming from the release of magnetic energy associated with sunspots. Flares are our solar system’s largest explosive events. They are seen as bright areas on the sun and they can last from minutes to hours. We typically see a solar flare by the photons (or light) it releases, at most every wavelength of the spectrum. The primary ways we monitor flares are in x-rays and optical light. Flares are also sites where particles (electrons, protons, and heavier particles) are accelerated.

The explosive heat of a solar flare can't make it all the way to our globe, but electromagnetic radiation and energetic particles certainly can. Solar flares can temporarily alter the upper atmosphere creating disruptions with signal transmission from, say, a GPS satellite to Earth causing it to be off by many yards. Statement 1 is correct. 

Solar flares and magnetic storms belong to a set of phenomena known collectively as "space weather". Technological systems and the activities of modern civilization can be affected by changing space-weather conditions. However, it has never been demonstrated that there is a causal relationship between space weather and earthquakes. Indeed, over the course of the Sun's 11-year variable cycle, the occurrence of flares and magnetic storms waxes and wanes, but earthquakes occur without any such 11-year variability. Since earthquakes are driven by processes in the Earth's interior, they would occur even if solar flares and magnetic storms were to somehow cease occurring.Similar is the case with Tsunamis and similarly, these solar storms do not result in forest fires.

And, even at their worst, the sun's flares are not physically capable of destroying Earth. Statements 2 and 5 are incorrect.

Another phenomenon produced by the sun could be even more disruptive. Known as a coronal mass ejection or CME these solar explosions propel bursts of particles and electromagnetic fluctuations into Earth's atmosphere. Those fluctuations could induce electric fluctuations at ground level that could blow out transformers in power grids.Statement 3 is correct.

Strong Solar Flare Could Trigger Auroras on Earth. Statement 4 is correct.

A CME's particles can also collide with crucial electronics onboard a satellite and disrupt its systems.Statement 6 is correct.

Shortwave radio communication of the aircraft flying over polar regions could be interrupted. Statement 7 is also correct.

Consider the following :

1. Carbon monoxide
2. Nitrogen oxide
3. Ozone
4. Sulphur dioxide

Excess of which of the following in the environment is/are cause(s) of acid rain?[UPSC 2022]

Acid rain results when sulphur dioxide (SO₂) and nitrogen oxides (NO_X) are emitted into the atmosphere and transported by wind and air currents. The SO₂ and NO_X react with water, oxygen and other chemicals to form sulphuric and nitric acids. These then mix with water and other materials before falling to the ground.

Thus, option B is the correct answer.

Gandikota canyon of South India was created by which one of the following rivers?[UPSC 2022]

Gandikota is a small village situated in the Kadapa district of Andhra Pradesh. It has gained momentum in the tourism circuit because of it almost forgotten spectacular gorge formed by the Pennar River that cuts through Erramala hills. A gorge is typically a narrow valley between hills or mountains, typically with steep rocky walls and a stream running through it. In fact, gorges are formed because of rock erosion over a long period of time.

Though it is hard to believe that Gandikota’s Pennar River could have carved such a huge gorge, the continuous flow of water eventually lead to a deep trench through the land, which went on to expose many layers of rock. In this entire process, a spectacular site was formed, which got to be known as the hidden grand canyon of India.

Consider the following statements:

DNA Barcoding can be a tool to :

1. assess the age of a plant or animal.
2. distinguish among species that look alike.
3. identify undesirable animal or plant materials in processed foods.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Statement 1 is incorrect- To measure the age of plant and animal remains from the more recent past, scientists use a radioactive isotope of carbon, called carbon-14, as their clock. As carbon-14 decays, with a half-life of about 5,730 years, it becomes nitrogen-14. Using this clock, they have dated bones, campfires and other objects as old as 60,000 years, and in some cases even older.

Statements 2 and 3 are correct-DNA barcoding is a system for species identification focused on the use of a short, standardized genetic region acting as a “barcode” in a similar way that Universal Product Codes (UPCs) are used by supermarket scanners to distinguish commercial products. Applications of DNA barcoding include identification of new species, safety assessment of food, identification and assessment of cryptic species, detection of alien species, etc.

Thus, option D is the correct answer.

Which one of the following statements best describes the role of B cells and T cells in the human body?

The immune system’s correct functioning requires a sophisticated balance between responses to continuous microbial challenges and tolerance to harmless antigens, such as self-antigens, food antigens, commensal microbes, allergens, etc. When this equilibrium is altered, it can lead to inflammatory pathologies, tumor growth, autoimmune disorders, and allergy/asthma. The objective of this review is to show the existing data on the importance of regulatory T cells (Tregs) on this balance and to underline how intrauterine and postnatal environmental exposures influence the maturation of the immune system in humans.

pTreg cells generation is influenced by a specific type of TCR signaling, and costimulation, and through cooperation with other signals, such as TGF-β, IL-2, and ATRA. These conditions suggest that pTreg cell differentiation could be restricted to precise locations such us mucosal surfaces where they may regulate immune responses to harmless antigens such as commensal microbiota and prevent allergic inflammation. Supporting these ideas, “studies using Rag-1-deficient T-B monoclonal mice sufficient or deficient in FOXP3 demonstrated that TCR transgenic pTreg cells were sufficient to establish mucosal tolerance and control allergic inflammation induced by the model antigen recognized by the TCR”

In the Government of India Act 1919, the functions of Provincial Government were divided into “Reserved” and “Transferred” subjects. Which of the following were treated as “Reserved” subjects?

1. Administration of Justice
2. Local Self-Government
3. Land Revenue
4. Police

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

[UPSC 2022]

The main features of the Montford Reforms were as follows:

● Provincial Government—Introduction of Dyarchy

The Act introduced dyarchy for the executive at the level of the provincial government.

Executive (i) Dyarchy, i.e., rule of two—executive councillors and popular ministers—was introduced. The governor was to be the executive head in the province.

(ii) Subjects were divided into two lists: ‘reserved’ which included subjects such aslaw and order, finance, land revenue, irrigation, etc., and ‘transferred’ subjects such as education, health,local government, industry, agriculture, excise, etc. The reserved subjects were to be administered by the governor through his executive council of bureaucrats, and the transferred subjects were to be administered by ministers nominated from among the elected members of the legislative council.

(iii) The ministers were to be responsible to the legislature and had to resign if a no-confidence motion was passed against them by the legislature, while the executive councillors were not to be responsible to the legislature.

(iv) In case of failure of constitutional machinery in the province the governor could take over the administration of transferred subjects also.

(v) The secretary of state for India and the governor-general could interfere in respect of reserved subjects while in respect of the transferred subjects, the scope for their interference was restricted.

Legislature(i) Provincial legislative councils were further expanded and 70 per cent of the members were to be elected.

(ii) The system of communal and class electorates was further consolidated.

(iii) Women were also given the right to vote.

(iv) The legislative councils could initiate legislation but the governor’s assent was required. The governor could veto bills and issue ordinances.

(v) The legislative councils could reject the budget but the governor could restore it, if necessary.

(vi) The legislators enjoyed freedom of speech.

● Central Government—Still Without Responsible Government No responsible government was envisaged in the Act for the government at the all-India level. The main points were:

Executive (i) The governor-general was to be the chief executive authority.

(ii) There were to be two lists for administration— central and provincial.

(iii) In the viceroy’s executive council of eight, three were to be Indians.

(iv) The governor-general retained full control over the reserved subjects in the provinces.

(v) The governor-general could restore cuts in grants, certify bills rejected by the central legislature and issue ordinances.

Legislature (i) A bicameral arrangement was introduced. The lower house or Central Legislative Assembly would consist of 145 members (41 nominated and 104 elected—

52 General, 30 Muslims, 2 Sikhs, 20 Special) and the upper house or Council of State would have 60 members, of which 26 were to be nominated and 34 elected—20 General, 10 Muslims, 3 Europeans and 1 Sikh (as per the figures given by Subhash Kashyap).

(ii) The Council of State had a tenure of 5 years and had only male members, while the Central Legislative Assembly had a tenure of 3 years.

(iii) The legislators could ask questions and supplementaries, pass adjournment motions and vote a part of the budget, but 75 per cent of the budget was still not votable.

Consider the following freedom fighters:

1. Barindra Kumar Ghosh

2. Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee

3. Rash Behari Bose

Who of the above was/were actively associated with the Ghadar Party?

[UPSC 2022]

During the First World War, Rashbehari Bose was involved as one of the leading figures of the Ghadr Revolution. At the close of 1913, Bose met Jatin to discuss the possibilities of an all-India armed rising of 1857 type. Then, he worked in cooperation with Bagha Jatin, extending the Bengal plan to Punjab and the upper provinces. As the plan for revolution did not succeed, Rashbehari Bose escaped to Japan in 1915. Much later, he was to play an important part in the founding of the Indian National Army.

The revolutionary activity in this region was dominated by the Hindustan Republican Association/Army or HRA(later renamed Hindustan Socialist Republican Association or HSRA). The HRA was founded in October 1924 in Kanpur by Ramprasad Bismil, Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee and Sachin Sanyal, with an aim to organise an armed revolution to overthrow the colonial government and establish in its place the Federal Republic of United States of India whose basic principle would be adult franchise.

The whole Anushilan group was arrested including the Ghosh brothers, Aurobindo and Barindra, who were tried in the Alipore conspiracy case, variously called Manicktolla bomb conspiracy or Muraripukur conspiracy. (Barindra Ghosh’s house was on Muraripukur Road in the Manicktolla suburb of Calcutta.) The Ghosh brothers were charged with conspiracy’ or ‘waging war against the King’ – the equivalent of high treason and punishable with death by hanging. Chittaranjan Das defended Aurobindo. Aurobindo was acquitted of all charges with the judge condemning the flimsy nature of the evidence against him. Barindra Ghosh, as the head of the secret society of revolutionaries and Ullaskar Dutt, as the maker of bombs, were given the death penalty which was later commuted to life in prison. During the trial, Narendra Gosain (or Goswami), who had turned approver and Crown witness, was shot dead by two co-accused, Satyendranath Bose and Kanailal Dutta in jail.

With reference to Indian history, consider the following statements:

1. The Dutch established their factories/warehouses on the east coast on lands granted to them by Gajapati rulers.
2. Alfonso de Albuquerque captured Goa from the Bijapur Sultanate.
3. The English East India Company established a factory at Madras on a plot of land leased from a representative of the Vijayanagara empire.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. The Gajapati dynasty was established by Emperor Kapilendra Deva (1434–66 CE) in 1434 and the last ruler Kakharua Deva was killed by Govinda Vidyadhara in 1541, who founded the Bhoi dynasty. Statement 1 is incorrect
2. The first governor of the Portuguese in India was Francis de Almeida. Later in 1509 Albuquerque was made the governor of the Portuguese territories in India. In 1510, he captured Goa from the ruler of Bijapur. Thereafter, Goa became the capital of the Portuguese settlements in India. Statement 2 is correct
3. The English East India Company established a factory in Madras in 1639 on land leased from representatives of Vijayanagara Empire called the Nayakas. Statement 3 is correct.

With reference to Indian history, consider the following statements:

1. The first Mongol invasion of India happened during the reign of Jalal-ud-din Khalji.
2. During the reign of Ala-ud-din Khalji, one Mongol assault marched up to Delhi and besieged the city.
3. Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq temporarily lost portions of north-west of his kingdom to Mongols.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

[UPSC 2022]

During the reign of Iltutmish (1211-1236), Temujin popularly known as Chengiz Khan, the leader of the Mongols, started invading Central Asia. Fortunately for Iltutmish, Chengiz Khan retuned home without entering into India. In fact, the Mongol policy of Iltutmish saved India from the wrath of Chengiz Khan.

During the tenure of Balban (1246-1287), in the northwest the Mongols reappeared and Balban sent his son Prince Mahmud against them. But the prince was killed in the battle and it was a moral blow to the Sultan. He could not fully safeguard India from the Mongol invasions. Statement 1 is incorrect.

Statement 2 is correct:During the reign of Ala-ud-din Khalji, one of the Mongol invasion reached till the outskirts of Delhi city and besieged it.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Muhammad bin Tughlaq conjectured rather wisely that the Mongols would, in all likelihood, attack again. The empire had grown to include many parts of the Deccan and southern India. He needed to consolidate his hold over these newly conquered regions. Devagiri was an inspired choice, really. Its location near was an asset. It was also closer to the areas around Madurai and most of Karnataka, the newly conquered regions of the empire. Not to mention, it was way too far away for the Mongols to plan an attack. 

With reference to Indian history, who of the following were known as “Kulah-Daran”?

The Sayyids were claimed to descent from the Prophet through his daughter Fatima. They Commanded special respect in Muslim society. Even the Timur protected the life of Sayyids during his invasion in India. Although his policy was one of general slaughter. The sayyids put on a pointed cap (kulah) and they were known as ‘Kulah Daran’ during Delhi sultanate.

The world's second tallest statue in sitting pose of Ramanuja was inaugurated by the Prime Minister of India at Hyderabad recently. Which one of the following statements correctly represents the teachings of Ramanuja?[UPSC 2022]

Option A is the correct - Ramanuja propounded the doctrine of Vishishtadvaita, or qualified oneness, in which the soul remained distinct even when united with the Supreme God. Ramanuja emphasised the epistemic and soteriological significance of bhakti, or personal God devotion, as a path to spiritual liberation.Salvation was to be obtained through intense devotion to Vishnu.

“Yogavasistha” was translated into Persian by Nizamuddin Panipati during the regin of: [UPSC 2022]

Akbar commissioned the translation of many Sanskrit works into Persian. A Maktab Khana or translation bureau was also established at Fatehpur Sikri for this purpose. The Mahabharata, Ramayana, Lilavati and Yogavashishtwere some of the notable Sanskrit works that were taken up for translation. The Razmnamah, Persian translation of the Mahabharata contains lavish illustrations of the events of Mahabharata.

In medieval India, the term "Fanam" referred to:

[UPSC 2022]

Vijayanagara Empire Coins

The Vijayanagara Empire (14th–17th century) issued large quantities of gold coins; other metals used in their coinage were pure silver and copper.

1. Pagodas—higher denomination –figure of running warrior along with dagger symbol
2. Goldfanams- fractional units. Option B is correct
3. Silver taras - fractional units
4. Copper coins - day to day transactions.

The earlier Vijayanagara coinage were produced in different mints and were called by different names such as Barkur gadyanas, Bhatkal gadyanas, etc. The inscriptions were in Kannada or Sanskrit. Images found are a double-headed eagle holding an elephant in each beak and claw, a bull, an elephant and various Hindu deities. The gold varahan coin issued by Krishna Deva Raya (1509–1529) had a seated Vishnu on one side and a three-line legend Shri Pratap Krishna Raya in Sanskrit on the other side.

The Prime Minister recently inaugurated the new Circuit House near Somnath Temple at Veraval. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Somnath Temple?

1. Somnath Temple is one of the Jyotirlinga shrines.
2. A description of Somnath Temple was given by Al-Biruni.
3. Pran Pratishtha of Somnath Temple (installation of the present day temple) was done by President S. Radhakrishnan.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

[UPSC 2022]

Somnath Temple at Somnath, Gujrat is one of the most sacred pilgrimage sites for Hindus and is believed to be first among the twelve Jyotirlinga shrines of Shiva. 

Ancient Indian traditions maintain a close relationship of Somnath with release of Chandra (Moon God) from the curse of his father-in-law Daksha Prajapati. Moon was married to Twenty-Seven daughters of Daksha. However, he favoured Rohini and neglected other queens. The aggrieved Daksha cursed Moon and the Moon lost power of light. With the advice of Prajapita Brahma, Moon arrived at the Prabhas Teerth and worshipped Bhagvan Shiva. Pleased with the great penance and devotion of Moon, Bhagvan Shiva blessed him and relieved him from the curse of darkness. Pauranic traditions maintain that Moon had built a golden temple, followed by a silver temple by Ravana, Bhagvan Shree Krishna is believed to have built Somnath temple with Sandalwood.

The later sources of history account for several desecrations by Muslims invaders during eleventh to eighteen century A.D. The temple was rebuilt every time with the reconstructive spirit of the people. The modern temple was reconstructed with the resolve of Sardar Patel who visited the ruins of Somnath temple on November 13 1947. Then President of India, Dr. Rajendra Prasad, did the Pran-Pratistha at the existing temple on 11 May 1951.

So statement 3 is incorrect. Hence, Option A is the answer.

Certain species of which one of the following organisms are well known as cultivators of fungi?[UPSC 2022]

Option A is the correct - About 240 species of attine ants—the leafcutters among them—are known to farm fungus in the Americas and the Caribbean. Their underground crops fuel complex, agriculturally-based societies that are not only sustainable and efficient, but also resistant to diseases and pests.

Which one of the following has been constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986? [UPSC 2022]

Option C is correct: Central Ground Water Authority has been constituted under Section 3 (3) of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 to regulate and control development and management of groundwater resources in the country.

The Authority has been conferred with the following powers:

(i)  Exercise of powers under section 5 of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 for issuing directions and taking such measures in respect of all the matters referred to in sub-section(2) of section 3 of the said Act.

(ii)  To resort to penal provisions contained in sections 15 to 21 of the said Act.

(iii) To regulate and control, management and development of ground water in the country and to issue necessary regulatory directions for the purpose.

(iv) Exercise of powers under section 4 of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 for the appointment of officers.

“Biorock technology” is talked about in which one of the following situations?[UPSC 2022]

BIOROCK OR Mineral Accretion Technology is a coral reef restoration technology that utilizes low voltage electricity to improve the health and growth rates of corals and other marine organisms.  The technology works by passing a small amount of electrical current through electrodes in the water.

When a positively charged anode and negatively charged cathode are placed on the seafloor, with an electric current flowing between them, calcium ions combine with carbonate ions and adhere to the structure (cathode). This results in calcium carbonate formation. Coral larvae adhere to the CaCO3 and grow quickly.

Fragments of broken corals are tied to the biorock structure, where they are able to grow at least four to six times faster than their actual growth as they need not spend their energy on building their own calcium carbonate skeletons.

In the context of WHO Air Quality Guidelines, consider the following statements:

1. The 24-hour mean of PM_2.5 should not exceed 15 µg/m3 and annual mean of PM_2.5 should not exceed 5 µg/m3.
2. In a year, the highest levels of ozone pollution occur during the periods of inclement weather.
3. PM₁₀ can penetrate the lung barrier and enter the bloodstream.
4. Exessive ozone in the air can trigger asthma.

Which of the statements given above are correct? [UPSC 2022]

Statement 1 is correct - The updated guidelines state that annual average concentrations of PM2.5 should not exceed 5 µg/m3, while 24-hour average exposures should not exceed 15 µg/m3 more than 3 - 4 days per year.

Statement 2 is incorrect - Ozone at ground level – not to be confused with the ozone layer in the upper atmosphere – is one of the major constituents of photochemical smog. It is formed by the reaction with sunlight (photochemical reaction) of pollutants such as nitrogen oxides (NOx) from the vehicle and industry emissions and volatile organic compounds (VOCs) emitted by vehicles, solvents and industry. As a result, the highest levels of ozone pollution occur during periods of sunny weather.

Statement 3 is incorrect - PM is capable of penetrating deep into the lungs but PM can even enter the bloodstream. The effects of PM on health occur at levels of exposure currently being experienced by many people both in urban and rural areas and in developed and developing countries – although exposures in many fast-developing cities today are often far higher than in developed cities of comparable size.

In low- and middle-income countries, exposure to pollutants in and around homes from the household combustion of polluting fuels on open fires or traditional stoves for cooking, heating and lighting further increases the risk for air pollution-related diseases, including acute lower respiratory infections, cardiovascular disease, chronic obstructive pulmonary disease and lung cancer.

Statement 4 is correct - Excessive ozone in the air can have a marked effect on human health. It can cause breathing problems, trigger asthma, reduce lung function and cause lung diseases.

[Ref:]

"If rainforests and tropical forests are the lungs of the Earth, then surely wetlands function as its kidneys.”  Which one of the following functions of wetlands best reflects the above statement? [UPSC 2022]

Around the world, wetlands are still disappearing three times faster than forests, erasing entire ecosystems. While tropical rainforests are often called the lungs of the Earth, wetlands are described as the kidneys. They can absorb large quantities of water, filtering pollutants and helping to prevent floods. They have also become key allies in the fight against climate change, as they can capture CO2 from the atmosphere.

Consider the following statements :

1. Other than those made by humans, nanoparticles do not exist in nature.
2. Nanoparticles of some metallic oxides are used in the manufacture of some cosmetics.
3. Nanoparticles of some commercial products which enter the environment are unsafe for humans.

Which of the statements given below is/are correct?[UPSC 2022]

Statement 1 is incorrect - A nanoparticle is a small particle that ranges between 1 to 100 nanometres in size. Undetectable by the human eye, nanoparticles can exhibit significantly different physical and chemical properties to their larger material counterparts.They occur both naturally and are manmade.

Statement 2 is correct - Nanoparticles of metallic oxides like Zinc and silicon oxides are used in the manufacture of some cosmetics.

Statement 3 is correct - Engineered nanomaterials are rapidly becoming a part of our daily life in the form of cosmetics, food packaging, drug delivery systems, therapeutics, biosensors, and others. Since their size scale is similar to that of biological macromolecules and due to their antibacterial and odor-fighting properties, nanomaterials are extensively used for a number of commercial products such as wound dressing, detergents or antimicrobial coatings.Nanoparticles of some commercial products which enter the environment are unsafe for humans.

Thus, option D is the correct answer.

With reference to Indian history, consider the following texts:

1. Nettipakarana
2. Parishishtaparvan
3. Avadanashataka
4. Trishashtilakshana Mahapurana

[UPSC 2022]

Statement 1 is incorrect:Non-canonical Buddhist literature in Pali includes the Milindapanha (1st century BCE–1st century CE) which consists of a dialogue on various philosophical issues between king Milinda—no doubt the Indo-Greek Menander —and the monk Nagasena. The Nettigandha or Nettipakarana (The Book of Guidance) belongs to the same period and gives a connected account of the teaching of the Buddha.

Statement 2 is correct: The Parishishtaparvan (12th century) by Hemachandra gives a history of the earliest Jaina teachers and also mentions certain details of political history.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Sanskrit Buddhist texts include Ashvaghosha’s Buddhacharita (1st/2nd century) and the Avadana texts. The latter contain stories of noteworthy deeds with a moral; they include theAvadanashataka (2nd century) and the Divyavadana (4th century) which have stories connected with the Buddha and the Maurya emperor Ashoka.

Statement 4 is correct:The Trishashtilakshana Mahapurana by Jinasena and Gunabhadra (9th century) has life stories of various Jaina saints, kings, and heroes. It also has sections on topics such as life-cycle rituals, the interpretation of dreams, town planning, the duties of a warrior, and how a king should rule.

With reference to Indian History, consider the following pairs:

Historical person - Known as

1. Aryadeva — Jaina scholar
2. Dignaga — Buddhist scholar
3. Nathamuni — Vaishnava scholar

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?

[UPSC 2022]

First pair is incorrectly matched. Important thinkers of the Madhayamaka school included Aryadeva, Buddhapalita, Bhavaviveka, Chandrakirti, and Shantideva. Later works of Mahayana thinkers such as Nagarjuna, Vasubandhu, Asanga, Aryadeva, Buddhapalita, and Dignaga are all in Sanskrit. Second pair is correctly matched.

Alvar means ‘those who dive deep’ or ‘those who are absorbed in the divine’. The hymns of the 12 Alvars were collected in the 10th century by Nathamuni in the Nalayira Divya Prabandham (Four Thousand Holy Hymns), which constituted the Vaishnava canon. Third pair is correctly matched.

According to Kautiyla’s Arthahastra, which of the following are correct?

1. A person could be a slave as a result of a judicial punishment.
2. If a female slave bore her master a son, she was legally free.
3. If a son born to a female slave was fathered by her master, the son was entitled to the legal status of the master’s son.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Statement 1 is correct: The Arthashastra deals with the administration of justice in detail. Judges are called dharmasthas, and there are references to the pradeshtris as officers responsible for the suppression of criminals. Punishments for crimes range from fines to mutilation of limbs to death. The nature of the punishment depended on the nature, gravity, and circumstances of the crime, and also on the varna of the offender and plaintiff. The Arthashastra states that a man could be a slave either by birth, by voluntarily selling himself, by being captured in war, or as a result of a judicial punishment.

Statement 2 and 3 are correct: Kautilya also states that if a dasi bore her master a son, she was released from enslavement, and the child was considered the father’s legitimate son.

Consider the following pairs:

Site of Ashoka's major rock edicts – Location in the State of

1. Dhauli - Odisha

2. Erragudi - Andhra Pradesh

3. Jaugada - Madhya Pradesh

4. Kalsi - Karnataka

How many pairs(Sites of Ashoka's major rock edicts - Location) are correctly matched?[UPSC 2022]

Statement 1 is correct- Near Dhauli, south of Bhubaneshwar,Odisha there is a rock inscribed with the edicts of the emperor Ashoka.

Statement 2 is correct - Major Rock Edicts and Minor Rock Edict are found at Yerragudi, near, Kurnool district, Andhra Pradesh.

Statement 3 is incorrect - Rock edict at Jaugada, Ganjam district, Orissa (includes Kalinga Edict).

Statement 4 is incorrect - Ashokan edict is also found at Kalsi, near Chakrata, Dehradun district, Uttarakhand.

Thus, option B is the correct option.

Consider the following pairs:

King - Dynasty

1. Nanuka - Chandela

2. Jayashakti - Paramara

3. Nagabhata II - Gurjara-Pratihara

4. Bhoja - Rashtrakuta

How many pairs given above are correctly matched?[UPSC 2022]

Statement 1 is correct - Nannuka was the founder of the Chandela dynasty of India.

Statement 2 is incorrect - Jayashakti was a 9th-century ruler from the Chandela dynasty of Central India.

Statement 3 is correct - Nagabhata II (reign 795–833) was an Indian Emperor from Gurjara-Pratihara dynasty.

Statement 4 is incorrect - Bhoja popularly known as Raja Bhoj Parmar (reigned c. 1010–1055 CE) was an Indian King from the Paramara dynasty.

Thus, option B is the correct answer.

Which one of the following statements about Sangam literature in ancient South India is correct?[UPSC 2022]

Statement 1 is incorrect - The Sangam Age constitutes an important chapter in the history of South India.The corpus of Sangam literature includes Tolkappiyam, Ettutogai, Pattuppattu, Pathinenkilkanakku, and the two epics – Silappathigaram and Manimegalai.It is a work on Tamil grammar but it provides information on the political and socio- economic conditions of the Sangam period.

Statement 2 is correct - Tolkappiyam also refers to four castes namely arasar, anthanar,vanigar and vellalar. The ruling class was called arasar. Anthanars playeda significant role in the Sangam polity and religion. Vanigars carried on trade and commerce. The vellalas were agriculturists. Other tribal groups like Parathavar, Panar, Eyinar, Kadambar, Maravar and Pulaiyar were also found in the Sangam society. Ancient primitive tribes like Thodas, Irulas, Nagas and Vedars lived in this period.

Statement 3 is incorrect - Both Ettutogai and Pattuppattu were divided into two main groups – Aham (love) and Puram (valour).Korravai. The Hero Stone or Nadu Kal worship was significant in the Sangam period. The Hero Stone was erected in memory of the bravery shown by the warrior in battle.

Statement 4 is incorrect -Gods worshipped during the Sangam period were Mayon (Vishnu), Vendan (Indiran), Varunan and Korravai.

Thus, option B is the correct answer.

Consider the following communication technologies:

1. Closed-circuit Television 

2. Radio Frequency Identification 

3. Wireless Local Area Network 

Which of the above are considered Short-Range devices/technologies? [UPSC 2022]

Short Range Devices (SRD) are radio devices that offer a low risk of interference with other radio services, usually because their transmitted power, and hence their range is low. The definition 'Short Range Device' may be applied to many different types of wireless equipment, including various forms of:

• Access control (including door and gate openers)
• Alarms and movement detectors
• Closed-circuit television (CCTV)
• Cordless audio devices, including wireless microphones
• Industrial control
• Local Area Networks
• Medical implants
• Metering devices
• Remote control
• Radio frequency identification (RFID)
• Road Transport Telematics
• Telemetry.

With reference to foreign-owned e-commerce firms operating in India, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. They can sell their own goods in addition to offering their platforms as market-places.
2. The degree to which they can own big sellers on their platforms is limited.

Select the correct answer using the code given below: [UPSC 2022]

Statement 1 is incorrect - Consumer Protection (E-Commerce) Rules, 2020 define an e-commerce entity (also foreign-owned) as any person who owns, operates or manages a digital or electronic facility or platform for electronic commerce, but does not include a seller offering his goods or services for sale on a marketplace e-commerce entity.

Statement 2 is correct - Marketplace based model of e-commerce means providing an IT platform by an e-commerce entity on a digital & electronic network to act as a facilitator between buyer and seller. On other hand, Inventory based model of e-commerce means an e-commerce activity where the inventory of goods and services is owned by an e-commerce entity and is sold to the consumers directly. However, FDI is not permitted in the inventory-based model of e-commerce. According to guidelines for FDI (Foreign Direct Investment) on E-Commerce, an E-commerce entity providing a marketplace will not exercise ownership or control over the inventory i.e. goods purported to be sold. Such an ownership or control over the inventory will render the business into the inventory-based model. The inventory of a vendor will be deemed to be controlled by an e-commerce marketplace entity if more than 25% of purchases of such vendors are from the marketplace entity or its group companies.