UPSC Prelims 2020 Solutions

Consider the following statements:

1. Aadhaar metadata cannot be stored for more than three months.
2. State cannot enter into any contract with private corporations for sharing of Aadhaar data.
3. Aadhaar is mandatory for obtaining insurance products.
4. Aadhaar is mandatory for getting benefits funded out of the Consolidated Fund of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

Statement 1 is incorrect - Aadhaar authentication data can’t be retained beyond 6 months.

Statement 2 is correct - Supreme Court ruling that struck down parts of Section 57 of the Aadhaar Act, that gave access to private companies puts a stop to this mission creep of Aadhaar. Section 57 of the Aadhaar Act, 2016, which allows the use of the 12-digit Aadhaar number for establishing the identity of an individual for any purpose—whether by the State or any corporate or person— has been read down. “That portion of Section 57 of the Aadhaar Act which enables body corporate and individual to seek authentication is held to be unconstitutional," the bench said in it's judgement.

Statement 3 is incorrect - Aadhaar is not mandatory for buying/obtaining insurance products. But the Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India said that linkage of 12-digit Aadhaar number to insurance policies is a mandatory requirement under the prevention of money laundering rules for existing and new policies. “The Authority clarifies that, linkage of Aadhaar number to Insurance Policies is mandatory under the Prevention of Money-laundering (Maintenance of Records) Second Amendment Rules, 2017."

IRDA said that life and general insurers including standalone health insurers have to implement link Aadhaar number issued by the Unique Identification Authority of India with insurance policies without awaiting further instructions. All policyholders will have to link there policies and furnish the Aadhaar number. Insurer expect it to help the sector in reducing frauds and quicker claim settlement.

Statement 4 is correct - The State government is actively working on making Aadhaar authentication mandatory for availing any benefit, subsidy or service for schemes funded by the Consolidated Fund of the State in line with the circular issued by the Unique Identification Authority of India (UIDAI). The development follows the amendment made to Section 7 of the Aadhaar (Targeted delivery of financial and other subsidies, benefits and services) Act 2016, stipulating a condition that the State government can mandate use of Aadhaar authentication for beneficiaries for receipt of a subsidy, benefit or service for which the expenditure is incurred from the consolidated fund.

Rajya Sabha has equal powers with Lok Sabha in

In the following matters, the powers and status of the Rajya Sabha are equal to that of the Lok Sabha:

1. Introduction and passage of ordinary bills.

2. Introduction and passage of Constitutional amendment bills.

3. Introduction and passage of financial bills involving expenditure from the Consolidated Fund of India.

4. Election and impeachment of the president.

5. Election and removal of the Vice-President. However, Rajya Sabha alone can initiate the removal of the vice-president. He is removed by a resolution passed by the Rajya Sabha by an effective majority (which is a type of special majority) and agreed to by the Lok Sabha by a simple majority.

6. Making recommendation to the President for the removal of Chief Justice and judges of Supreme Court and high courts, chief election commissioner and comptroller and auditor general.

7. Approval of ordinances issued by the President.

8. Approval of proclamation of all three types of emergencies by the President.

9. Selection of ministers including the Prime Minister. Under the Constitution, the ministers including the Prime Minister can be members of either House. However, irrespective of their membership, they are responsible only to the Lok Sabha.

10. Consideration of the reports of the constitutional bodies like Finance Commission, Union Public Service Commission, comptroller and auditor general, etc.

11. Enlargement of the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court and the Union Public Service Commission. 

With reference to the funds under Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme (MPLADS), which of the following statements are correct ?

1. MPLADS funds must be used to create durable assets like physical infrastructure for health, education, etc.
2. A specified portion of each MP’s fund must benefit SC/ST populations.
3. MPLADS funds are sanctioned on yearly basis and the unused funds cannot be carried forward to the next year.
4. The district authority must inspect at least 10% of all works under implementation every year.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

Statement 1 is correct - According to the document ‘Guidelines on Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme (MPLADS)’ published by the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation in June 2016, “The objective of the scheme is to enable MPs to recommend works of developmental nature with emphasis on the creation of durable community assets based on the locally felt needs to be taken up in they're Constituencies. Right from inception of the Scheme, durable assets of national priorities viz. drinking water, primary education, public health, sanitation and roads, etc. are being created.” Recommendations for non-durable assets can be made only under limited circumstances. For example, March 2020, the government allowed use of MPLAD funds for the purchase of personal protection equipment, coronavirus testing kits etc.

Statement 2 is correct - The guidelines recommend MPs to suggest works costing at least 15 per cent of there MPLADS entitlement for the year for areas inhabited by Scheduled Caste population and 7.5 per cent for areas inhabited by ST population. “In other words, out of an amount of Rs 5 crore, an MP shall recommend for areas inhabited by SC population, Rs75 lacs and Rs.37.5 lacs for areas inhabited by S.T. population. In case their is insufficient tribal population in the area of Lok Sabha Member, they may recommend this amount for the creation of community assets in tribal areas outside of there constituency but within there State of election,” the guidelines say.

Statement 3 is incorrect - Funds under the MPLADS are non-lapsable, both at the end of the Central Government and at the end of the District Authorities. Members of Parliament can recommend works up to they're full annual entitlement without linking with actual release of funds and District Authorities are required to undertake immediate sanction and implementation of the eligible works so recommended.

Statement 4 is correct - The District Authority would be responsible for overall coordination and supervision of the works under the scheme at the district level and inspect at least 10% of the works under implementation every year. The District Authority should involve the MPs in the inspections of projects to the extent feasible

Which one of the following categories of Fundamental Rights incorporates protection against untouchability as a form of discrimination ?

Article 17 abolishes ‘untouchability’ and forbids its practice in any form. The enforcement of any disability arising out of untouchability shall be an offence punishable in accordance with law.

Right to equality (Articles 14–18)

(a) Equality before law and equal protection of laws (Article 14).

(b) Prohibition of discrimination on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth (Article 15).

(c) Equality of opportunity in matters of public employment (Article 16).

(d) Abolition of untouchability and prohibition of its practice (Article 17).

(e) Abolition of titles except military and academic (Article 18).

In India, separation of judiciary from the executive is enjoined by

The Directive Principles of State Policy are enumerated in Part IV of the Constitution from Articles 36 to 51. The Constitution does not contain any classification of Directive Principles. However, on the basis of their content and direction, they can be classified into three broad categories, viz, socialistic, Gandhian and liberal-intellectual. 

One of the Liberal-Intellectual principle is to separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State (Article 50).

Along with the Budget, the Finance Minister also places other documents before the Parliament which include "The Macro Economic Framework Statement". The aforesaid document is presented because this is mandated by

The budget is not merely a statement of receipts and expenditures. Since Independence, with the launching of the Five-Year Plans, it has also become a significant national policy statement. The budget, it has been argued, reflects and shapes, and is, in turn, shaped by the country’s economic life. Along with the budget, three policy statements are mandated by the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003 (FRBMA).

• The Medium-term Fiscal Policy Statement sets a three year rolling target for specific fiscal indicators and examines whether revenue expenditure can be financed through revenue receipts on a sustainable basis and how productively capital receipts including market borrowings are being utilised.
• The Fiscal Policy Strategy Statement sets the priorities of the government in the fiscal area, examining current policies and justifying any deviation in important fiscal measures.
• The Macroeconomic Framework Statement assesses the prospects of the economy with respect to the GDP growth rate, fiscal balance of the central government and external balance

A constitutional government by definition is a

Constitutional government is defined by the existence of a constitution—which may be a legal instrument or merely a set of fixed norms or principles generally accepted as the fundamental law of the polity—that effectively controls the exercise of political power. The essence of constitutionalism is the control of power by it's distribution among several state organs or offices in such a way that they are each subjected to reciprocal controls and forced to cooperate in formulating the will of the state.

A limited government is one who's legalized force and power is restricted through delegated and enumerated authorities. Countries with limited governments have fewer laws about what individuals and businesses can and cannot do. In many cases, such as the United States, it is a constitutionally limited government, bound to specific principles and actions by a state or federal constitution.

The one of the function of a constitution is to specify who has the power to make decisions in a society. It decides how the government will be constituted. In the Indian Constitution for example, it is specified that in most instances, Parliament gets to decide laws and policies, and that Parliament itself be organised in a particular manner. Before identifying what the law in any given society is, you have to identify who has the authority to enact it. If Parliament has the authority to enact laws, there must be a law that bestows this authority on Parliament in the first place. This is the function of the constitution. It is an authority that constitutes government in the first place.

Other than the Fundamental Rights, which of the following parts of the Constitution of India reflect/reflects the principles and provisions of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (1948)?

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

The Indian Constitution was framed by the Constituent Assembly of India, which met for the first time on December 9, 1946. The Constitution of India gave primary importance to human rights. The Constituent Assembly incorporated in the Constitution of India the substance of the rights proclaimed and adopted by the General Assembly in the Universal Declaration of Human Rights. Further on 10th December 1948, when the Constitution of India was in the making, the General Assembly proclaimed and adopted the Universal Declaration of Human Rights, which surely influenced the framing of India’s Constitution. Viewed from the Indian standpoint, human rights have been synthesized, as it were, not as an integrated fabric by the Preambular promises and various Constitutional clause of the National Charter of 1950.

Article 1 of the Universal Declaration seeks to promote brotherhood. This concept is mentioned in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution, where it seeks to ensure fraternity, and in Fundamental Duties, in Article 51A(e), in which it is mentioned that we all share duty to promote harmony and brotherhood in society. 

The most of the economic, social and cultural rights proclaimed in the Universal Declaration of Human Rights have been incorporated in part IV (Directive Principles of State Policy) of the Indian Constitution, as given below in the table.

In India, Legal Services Authorities provide free legal services to which of the following type of citizens?

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

The provision for the free legal aid is state specific so in this question none of the statements is correct, but if we need to attempt the question then in the best case scenario the answer would be, 1 and 2 only (Option A).

The persons eligible for getting free legal services include:

(i) Women and children.

(ii) Members of SC/ST.

(iii) Industrial workmen.

(iv) Victims of mass disaster, violence, flood, drought, earthquake or industrial disaster.

(v) Disabled persons

(vi) Persons in custody.

(vii) Persons whose annual income does not exceed ₹1 lakh (in t Supreme Court Legal Services Committee the limit ₹1,25,000/-).

(viii) Victims of trafficking in human beings or begar.

Senior citizens’ eligibility for free legal aid depends on the Rules framed by the respective State Governments in this regard.

In Delhi for example, senior citizens are eligible for free legal aid subject to prescribed ceiling of annual income. Any individual above the age of 60 can apply for free legal aid/services.

Similarly in Delhi the condition for free legal aid for Transgender is subject to prescribed ceiling of annual income less than 2,00,000.

Consider the following pairs :

International agreement/set-up Subject

1. Alma-Ata Declaration ------ Healthcare of the people
2. Hague Convention ------ Biological and chemical weapons
3. Talanoa Dialogue ------ Global climate change
4. Under2 Coalition ------ Child Rights

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

Statement 1 is correct - The Alma-Ata Declaration of 1978emerged as a major milestone of the twentieth century in the field of public health, and it identified primary health care as the key to the attainment of the goal of Health for All. In 1978, a pivotal conference was held in Almaty, Kazakhstan, bringing together health experts and world leaders to commit to health for all. Endorsed at that conference, the declaration formed the foundation for the last 40 years of global primary health care efforts.

[https://www.deccanchronicle.com/discourse/120519/take-care-all-revisiting-primary-health-care-40-yrs-after-alma-ata.html]

Statement 2 is incorrect - Central Adoption Resource Authority (CARA) is a statutory body that functions as the nodal body for adoption of Indian children and is mandated to monitor and regulate in-country and inter-country adoptions. CARA is designated as the central authority to deal with inter-country adoptions in accordance with the provisions of the Hague Convention on Inter-country Adoption, 1993, ratified by Government of India in 2003. CARA primarily deals with adoption of orphan, abandoned and surrendered children through its associated/recognised adoption agencies. The Hague Convention on the Civil Aspects of International Child Abduction or Hague Abduction Convention is a multilateral treaty developed by the Hague Conference on Private International Law (HCCH) that provides an expeditious method to return a child internationally abducted.

One can be confused with the Organisation for the Prohibition of Chemical Weapons (OPCW); an intergovernmental organization based in The Hague, Netherlands is the ‘treaty organisation' for the CWC.

Statement 3 is correct - The Talanoa Dialogue of the UN Framework Convention on Climate Change, beginning this month, will facilitate the parties to take stock of progress post-Paris. As a key player in international climate governance, India could set the precedent in deepening the dialogue process through an action-oriented, inclusive, bottom-up approach, involving extensive participation and collaboration of it's States.

[Ref:https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/a-sum-of-contributions/article22391950.ece]

Statement 4 is incorrect - The Under2 Coalition, a Memorandum of Understanding by subnational governments to reduce there greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions towards net-zero by 2050, is generating a unique precedent for bold climate leadership, with it's member states and regions surpassing 200 in number. Currently (2017), Telangana and Chhattisgarh are signatories to this pact from India, as compared to representations from the other top emitters: 26 subnational governments in China and 24 in the U.S. Greater representation of Indian States is crucial.

Ref: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/a-sum-of-contributions/article22391950.ece]

A Parliamentary System of Government one in which

Modern democratic governments are classified into parliamentary and presidential on the basis of nature of relations between the executive and the legislative organs of the government.

The parliamentary system of government is the one in which the executive is responsible to the legislature for its policies and acts. The parliamentary government is also known as cabinet government or responsible government or Westminster model of government and is prevalent in Britain, Japan, Canada, India among others.

Ivor Jennings called the parliamentary system as ‘cabinet system’ because the cabinet is the nucleus of power in a parliamentary system. The parliamentary government is also known as ‘responsible government’ as the cabinet (the real executive) is accountable to the Parliament and stays in office so long as it enjoys the latter’s confidence. It is described as ‘Westminster model of government’ after the location of the British Parliament, where the parliamentary system originated.

Which part of the Constitution of India declares the ideal of Welfare State?

According to Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, the Directive Principles of State Policy is a ‘novel feature’ of the Indian Constitution. They are enumerated in Part IV of the Constitution. They can be classified into three broad categories – socialistic, Gandhian and liberal-intellectual. The Directive Principles are meant for promoting the ideal of social and economic democracy. They seek to establish a ‘welfare state’ in India.

However, unlike the Fundamental Rights, the directives are non-justiciable in nature, that is, they are not enforceable by the courts for their violation. Yet, the Constitution itself declares that ‘these principles are fundamental in the governance of the country and it shall be the duty of the state to apply these principles in making laws’. Hence, they impose a moral obligation on the state authorities for their application. But, the real force (sanction) behind them is political, that is, public opinion. 

Consider the following statements:

1. The Constitution of India defines its ‘basic structure’ in terms of federalism, secularism, fundamental rights and democracy.
2. The Constitution of India provides for ‘judicial review’ to safeguard the citizens liberties and to preserve the ideals on which the Constitution is based.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Statement 1 is incorrect - The Constitution does not defines the basic structure, as it was in the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973), the Supreme Court overruled its judgement in the Golak Nath case (1967). It upheld the validity of the 24th Amendment Act (1971) and stated that Parliament is empowered to abridge or take away any of the Fundamental Rights. At the same time, it laid down a new doctrine of the ‘basic structure’ (or ‘basic features’) of the Constitution. 

Statement 2 is correct - In India, the Constitution itself confers the power of judicial review on the judiciary (both the Supreme Court as well as High Courts). Further, the Supreme Court has declared the power of judicial review as a basic feature of the Constitution or an element of the basic structure of the Constitution. Hence, the power of judicial review cannot be curtailed or excluded even by a constitutional amendment

Though the phrase ‘Judicial Review’ has nowhere been used in the Constitution, the provisions of several Articles explicitly confer the power of judicial review on the Supreme Court and the High Courts.

One common agreement between Gandhism and Marxism is

India follows the democratic type of Government. India is a big country and hence needs to be governed in a proper and an effective way. Mahatma Gandhi's imagination of the democracy -fully encircled with non-violence -exists in no nation of the world as up to now. His ideal is a stateless democracy, in which there is a federation of satyagrahi village communities, functioning on the basis of voluntary cooperation and dignified and peaceful co-existence are relevance in the context of Indian democracy. In the present day democracy, there is a great deal of centralization and inequality. Gandhian concept of Self Rule means Swaraj is real democracy, where people's power rests in the individuals and each one realizes that he or she is the real master of one's self.

Classless society, in Marxism, the ultimate condition of social organization, expected to occur when true communism is achieved. According to Karl Marx (1818–83), the primary function of the state is to repress the lower classes of society in the interests of the ruling class. However, after the class struggle has resulted in the victory of the proletariat and the establishment of a socialist society, there will be no further need for such a repressive institution; with the disappearance of classes, the state is expected to “wither away.”

This clarifies that stateless society was the common point of these two thinkers.

In the context of India, which one of the following is the characteristic appropriate for bureaucracy?

India has established professional administrative machinery. At the same time, this machinery is made politically accountable. The bureaucracy is also expected to be politically neutral. This means that the bureaucracy will not take any political position on policy matters. In a democracy, it is always possible that a party is defeated in elections and the new government wants to opt for new policies in the place of policies of the previous government. In such a situation, it is the responsibility of the administrative machinery to faithfully and efficiently participate in drafting the policy and in its implementation.

The Preamble to the Constitution of India is

Like any other part of the Constitution, the Preamble was also enacted by the Constituent Assembly; but, after the rest of the Constitution was already enacted. The reason for inserting the Preamble at the end was to ensure that it was in conformity with the Constitution as adopted by the Constituent Assembly. While forwarding the Preamble for votes, the President of the Constituent Assembly said, ‘The question is that Preamble stands part of the Constitution’. The motion was then adopted. Hence, the current opinion held by the Supreme Court that the Preamble is a part of the Constitution, is in consonance with the opinion of the founding fathers of the Constitution. However, two things should be noted:

1. The Preamble is neither a source of power to legislature nor a prohibition upon the powers of legislature.

2. It is non-justiciable, that is, its provisions are not enforceable in courts of law.

“Gold Tranche” (Reserve Tranche) refers to

The total foreign currencies (of different countries) an economy possesses at a point of time is its ‘foreign currency assets/reserves’. The Forex Reserves (short for ‘foreign exchange reserves’) of an economy is its ‘foreign currency assets’ added with its gold reserves, SDRs (Special Drawing Rights) and Reserve Tranche Position (RTP) in the IMF.

Reserve Position in the IMF -The reserve tranche is portion of the required quota of currency that each International Monetary Fund (IMF) member country must provide to the IMF that can be utilized for its own purposes without a service fee. In other words, it is basically an emergency account that IMF members can access without agreeing to conditions or paying a service fee. If the amount being sought by the member nation exceeds its reserve tranche position (RTP), then it becomes a credit tranche that must be repaid in three years.

The Reserve Position or Reserve Tranche Position is the difference between IMF holdings of a country and the designated IMF quota of the country.

With reference to the provisions contained in Part IV of the Constitution of India, which of the following statements is/are correct?

The Directive Principles of State Policy are enumerated in Part IV of the Constitution from Articles 36 to 51. The Directive Principles are non-justiciable in nature,that is, they are not legally enforceable by the courts for their violation. Therefore, the government (Central, state and local) cannot be compelled to implement them. Nevertheless, the Constitution (Article 37) itself says that these principles are fundamental in the governance of the country and it shall be theduty of the State to apply these principles in making laws.Therefore statements 2 and 3 are correct.

Consider the following statements :

1. According to the Constitution of India, a person who is eligible to vote can be made a minister in a State for six months even if he/she is not a member of the Legislature of that State.
2. According to the Representation of People Act, 1951, a person convicted of a criminal offence and sentenced to imprisonment for five years is permanently disqualified from contesting an election even after his release from prison.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

Statement 1 is incorrect - Usually, the members of the state legislature, either the legislative assembly or the legislative council, are appointed as ministers. A person who is not a member of either House of the state legislature can also be appointed as a minister. But, within six months, he must become a member (either by election or by nomination) of either House of the state legislature, otherwise, he ceases to be a minister. So to be a member of state legislature, the Constitution lays down the following qualifications

(a) He must be a citizen of India.

(b) He must make and subscribe to an oath or affirmation before the person authorised by the Election Commission for this purpose.

(c) He must be not less than 30 years of age in the case of the legislative council and not less than 25 years of age in the case of the legislative assembly.

(d) He must posses other qualifications prescribed by Parliament. 

Though person above 18 years of age can vote, but he/she can not be made minister since minimum requirement is to be of 30 years of age in case of legislative council and 25 years of age in the case of the legislative assembly.

Statement 2 is incorrect - Section 8 (3) of the Representation of People Act 1951 states that if an MP or MLA is convicted for any other crime and is sent to jail for 2 years or more, he/ she will be disqualified for 6 years from the time of release.

Consider the following statements:

1. The President of India can summon a session of the Parliament at such place as he/she thinks fit.
2. The Constitution of India provides for three sessions of the Parliament in a year, but it is not mandatory to conduct all three sessions.
3. There is no minimum number of days that the Parliament is required to meet in a year.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Statement 1 is correct - According to Article 85 of the Constitution, the President shall from time to time summon each House of Parliament to meet at such time and place as he thinks fit, but six months shall not intervene between it's last sitting in one session and the date appointed for it's first sitting in the next session.

Statements 2 is incorrect - The Parliament should meet at least twice a year. By convention, there are usually three sessions in a year, viz,

1. the Budget Session (February to May);

2. the Monsoon Session (July to September); and

3. the Winter Session (November to December).

In 1955, Lok Sabha recommended a calendar of sittings for each session, the cabinet of Jawaharlal Nehru agreed to the recommendation, but it was not implemented. The Constitution does not specify when or for how many days Parliament should meet. Article 85 only requires that their should not be a gap of more then six months between two sessions of Parliament.

Statement 3 is correct - There are no minimum number of days that Parliament is required to meet in a year — in fact, the number of days that Parliament meets has reduced over the years. During the first two decades of Parliament, Lok Sabha met for an average of a little more then 120 days a year. This has come down to approximately 70 days in the last decade. 

With reference to the history of India, consider the following pairs:

1. Aurang — In-charge of treasury of the State
2. Banian — Indian agent of the East India Company
3. Mirasidar — Designated revenue payer to the State

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched ?

1. Statement 1 is incorrect : Aurang – A Persian term for a warehouse – a place where goods are collected before being sold; also refers to a workshop.
2. Statement 2 is correct :A contemporary described the banian as an individual, “By whom the English gentlemen in general conduct all their business. He is interpreter, head book-keeper, head secretary, head broker, the supplier of cash and cash-keeper, and in general also secret-keeper.” In these roles, the banians were crucial in enabling British mercantile interests to establish themselves in India, and they rose to great prominence and wealth in the 18th century
3. Statement 3 is correct :Revenue from land rental as well as an income tax based on the tenant's net profits from their land was the Madras presidency's main source of income. In ancient times, land appears to have been held in common with an individual unable to sell it without the consent of the other owners, who in most cases were members of the same community. Prior to the arrival of the British, the concept of individual proprietorship of land had already emerged along India's west coast such that the new administration's land revenue system was not markedly different from that of its predecessor. Nevertheless, landlords never sold land without the consent of other members of the community. This communistic property rights system was known as kaniachi among the Vellalars, swastium among the Brahmins and mirasi among Muslims and Christians. In the Tanjore district, all mirasi in the village were vested in a single individual who was called the Ekabhogam.The mirasidars were required to donate a certain amount of money known as mirei to the village administration.They also paid a specified sum to the Government. In return, the mirasidars demanded non-interference by the government in the internal affairs of the villages. Means Mirasidars were the designated revenue payer to the State.

With reference to the religious history of India, consider the following statements :

1. Sthaviravadins belong to Mahayana Buddhism.
2. Lokottaravadin sect was an offshoot of Mahasanghika sect of Buddhism.
3. The deification of Buddha by Mahasanghikas fostered the Mahayana Buddhism.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

Statement 1 is incorrect: The Sthaviravadins or the Theravadins The earliest available teachings of the Buddha to be found in Pali literature belongs to the school of the Theravadins, who may be called the most orthodox school of Buddhism. The teaching of the Buddha according to this school is very simple. Supporters of Mahayana regarded other Buddhists as followers of Hinayana. However, followers of the older tradition described themselves as theravadins, that is, those who followed the path of old, respected teachers, the theras. So Sthaviravadins belong to Hinayana Buddhism.

Statements 2 and 3 are correct: When King Dharmasoka (i.e. Kaiasoka) was reigning in Kusumapura (Me-tog-gis rgyaspa, i.e., Pataliputra), there arose a great schism in Buddhism on account of some controversial questions, and it divided into two schools, the Mahasanghika and the Sthaviravada. Of these, the Mahasanghika School gradually divided into eight fractions (to wit), the Mahasanghika School, the Ekavyavaharika, the Lokottaravadina, the Bahusrutiya, and so on.

Which of the following statements correctly explains the impact of Industrial Revolution on India during the first half of the nineteenth century ?

Statement 1 is correct:

The loss of traditional livelihood was not accompanied by a process of industrialisation in India, as had happened in other rapidly industrialising countries of the time. This resulted in deindustrialisation of India at a time when Europe was witnessing a reintensified Industrial Revolution. This happened at a time when Indian artisans and handicraftsmen were already feeling the crunch due to loss of patronage by princes and the nobility, who were now under the influence of new western tastes and values. Cheap and machine-made imports flooded the Indian market after the Charter Act of 1813 allowing one-way free trade for the British citizens. On the other hand, Indian products found it more and more difficult to penetrate the European markets. Tariffs of nearly 80 per cent were imposed on Indian textiles so that Indian cloth could no longer be cheap. After 1820, European markets were virtually closed to Indian exports. Cheap British made cloth flooded the Indian market.

First railway line connecting Bombay and Thane was laid down in 1853 under Lord Dalhousie. Construction of Railway line picked up after this, that is in the second half of the 19th century.

Consider the following events in the history of India:

1. Rise of Pratiharas under King Bhoja
2. Establishment of Pallava power under Mahendravarman — I
3. Establishment of Chola power by Parantaka -1
4. Pala dynasty founded by Gopala

What is the correct chronological order of the above events, starting from the earliest time ?

1. The dominance of Rajputs began from the seventh and eighth centuries and lasted till the Muslim conquest in the twelfth century. The Paramaras were also important Rajput rulers of this period. The most important king was Bhoja (836 – c. 885 CE). His military conquests as well as cultural contributions remain notable in the history of Rajputs.
2. Mahendravarman I (600 – 630 A.D.)
3. Parantaka I was one of the important early Chola rulers. He defeated the Pandyas and the ruler of Ceylon. But he suffered a defeat at the hands of the Rashtrakutas in the famous battle of Takkolam. Parantaka I (907– c. 955)was a great builder of temples. He also provided the vimana of the famous
4. The Pala empire was founded with the election of Gopala as the emperor of Gauda in 750 CE.

Which of the following phrases defines the nature of the *Hundi’ generally referred to in the sources of the post-Harsha period ?

1. Harshavardhana period is designated from 606 to 647 A.D.
2. Hoards of gadahiya/gadhaiya coins of the 7th– 12th centuries have been found in various parts of western India, indicating the use of money as a medium of exhange. Traders also used hundikas or bills of exchange, which facilitated large-scale transactions without the use of money. Inscriptions often mention toll houses (shulka-mandapikas), and commercial taxes were an important source of state income.

With reference to the book “Desher Katha" written by Sakharam Ganesh Deuskar during the freedom struggle, consider the following statements :

1. It warned against the Colonial States hypnotic conquest of the mind.
2. It inspired the performance of swadeshi street plays and folk songs.
3. The use of ‘desh’ by Deuskar was in the specific context of the region of Bengal.

Which of the statements given above are correct ?

Sakharam Ganesh Deuskar's Bangla book, published in 1904 titled 'Desher Katha', is a document of the screaming of the living Indian people in the chains of slavery and torture of exploitation in the British Empire. Fearful of the publication of the publication of thirteen thousand copies of its five editions in just five years, the British banned the book in 1910. To destroy the Indian economy, there is an authentic picture of the events of the agricultural system, destroying the craftsmanship and industry and dealing with contemptuous sentences in relation to the Indian citizen.

This book was translated into Hindi by 'Desh Ki Baat' by Baburao Vishnu Paradkar. First published from Mumbai in 1908 and its revised edition from Calcutta in 1910.

Deuskar used desh to mean nation. The overlap of place of origin and nation, as well as jati (literally birth, family or caste) and nationality inflected understandings of the nation/country in distinct ways. Moreover, the constant overlap and conflation of Bengal and India, and Bengalis and Indians in the use of desh and jati, added further twists to notions of nationalism. It is worth quoting part of an article “Amader Desher Katha” [About our Country], that appeared in the children’s periodical Prakriti [Nature] in 1907. Though we constantly reiterate the phrase ‘our country’ do we have any exact idea of the actual constituents of that territory? . What are the boundaries of our land? . . . Steering clear of political debates, let us see what Mother Nature has to say in this regard . . . her fingers point to a huge expanse - far greater than Bengal - as our nation. Following her directions we recognize the glorious Bharatbarsha as our majestic land. With walls of the highest mountains and the deepest caverns of the seas, Nature has carved out the contours of Bharat and made it distinct from the rest of the world . . . this great expanse called Bharatbarsha is our nation.

The Gandhi-Irwin Pact included which of the following ?

1. Invitation to Congress to participate in the Round Table Conference
2. Withdrawal of Ordinances promulgated in connection with the Civil Disobedience Movement
3. Acceptance of Gandhiji’s suggestion for enquiry into police excesses
4. Release of only those prisoners who were not charged with violence

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

Gandhi-Irwin Pact

On January 25, 1931, Gandhi and all other members of the Congress Working Committee (CWC) were released unconditionally. The CWC authorised Gandhi to initiate discussions with the viceroy. As a result of these discussions, a pact was signed between the viceroy, representing the British Indian Government, and Gandhi, representing the Indian people, in Delhi on February 14, 1931. This Delhi Pact, also known as the Gandhi-Irwin Pact, placed the Congress on an equal footing with the government. Irwin on behalf of the government agreed on—

1. immediate release of all political prisoners not convicted of violence;

2. remission of all fines not yet collected;

3. return of all lands not yet sold to third parties;

4. lenient treatment to those government servants who had resigned;

5. right to make salt in coastal villages for personal consumption (not for sale);

6. right to peaceful and non-aggressive picketing; and

7. withdrawal of emergency ordinances.

The viceroy, however, turned down two of Gandhi’s demands—

(i) public inquiry into police excesses, and

(ii) commutation of Bhagat Singh and his comrades’ death sentence to life sentence.

Gandhi on behalf of the Congress agreed—

(i) to suspend the civil disobedience movement, and

(ii) toparticipate in the next Round Table Conferenceon the constitutional question around the three lynch-pins of federation, Indian responsibility, and reservations and safeguards that may be necessary in India’s interests (covering such areas as defence, external affairs, position of minorities, financial credit of India and discharge of other obligations).

The Vital-Vidhvansak,' the first monthly journal to have the untouchable people as its target audience was published by

In 1888, Walangkar began publishing the monthly journal titled Vital-Vidhvansak (Destroyer of Brahmanical or Ceremonial Pollution), which was the first to have the untouchable people as its target audience. He also wrote articles for Marathi-language newspapers such as Sudharak and Deenbandhu, as well as composing couplets in Marathi that were intended to inspire the people.

Having read Hindu religious texts, Walangkar concluded that caste was contrived by the Aryan invaders to control the Anaryans (indigenous people). In 1889, he published Vital Viduvansan (Annihilation of Ceremonial Pollution), which protested the position of untouchables in society and raised consciousness regarding what those people should expect. He addressed this pamphlet, which was crafted as a collection of 26 questions, to the elites of Maharashtrian society. T. N. Valunjkar says that Walangkar "can be regarded as the first intellectual rebel from the dalit community to have launched a scathing criticism of the caste system and the position of dalits in it." 

With reference to the history of India, the terms “kulyavapa” and “dronavapa” denote:

Several inscriptions, e.g., the Gunaigarh grant of Vainyagupta, and the Damodarpur, Paharpur, and Baigram copper plates refer to potential donees applying for wasteland. It is not clear whether this was because of increasing pressure on arable land, the relative cheapness of such land, or the easy availabity of tax concessions for reclaiming wasteland.

Texts and inscriptions mention various land measure terms (Maity [1957], 1970: 48–61). The angula (probably ¾ inch) was the smallest measure. The hasta (cubit) was the standardized distance between the tip of the elbow and the middle finger (18 inches). Larger units of measure included the dhanu/danda and nala. The land measures used in eastern India included the adhavapa (3/8– 1/2 acre), dronavapa (1½–2 acres), and kulyavapa (12–16 acres).These were the areas required to sow one adhaka, drona, and kulya of grain respectively. Pataka was another land measure, and seems to have been equivalent to 60–80 acres. Other terms included pravartavapa (this was much smaller than a kulyavapa), padavarta (over 1 ft), and bhumi. The large number of land measure terms indicate that there was no single standard set of measurement and that different measures were current in different regions.

Who among the following rulers advised his subjects through this inscription ?

“Whosoever praises his religious sect or blames other sects out of excessive devotion to his own sect, with the view of glorifying his own sect, he rather injures his own sect very severely.”

Ashoka’s messages to his subjects:

"People perform a variety of rituals when they fall ill, when their children get married, when children are born, or when they go on a journey. These rituals are not useful. If instead, people observe other practices, this would be more fruitful. What are these other practices? These are:

1. being gentle with slaves and servants.
2. Respecting one’s elders.
3. Treating all creatures with compassion.
4. Giving gifts to brahmins and monks.”
5. “It is both wrong to praise one’s own religion or criticise another’s. Each one should respect the other’s religion. If one praises one’s own religion while criticising another’s, one is actually doing greater harm to one’s own religion. Therefore, one should try to understand the main ideas of another’s religion, and respect it.”

With reference to the cultural history of India, which one of the following is the correct description of the term "Paramitas" ?

The conduct and practices that formed part of the path leading to Buddhahood were not very different from those recommended in the earlier tradition. The several stages along the bodhisattva path involved the attainment of a number of perfections known as paramitas. These were originally listed as six and later expanded to ten. They consisted of generosity (dana), good conduct (shila), patient forbearance (kshanti), mental strength (virya), meditation (dhyana), wisdom (prajna), skilfulness in means (upaya-kaushalya), determination (pranidhana), power (bala), and knowledge (jnana).

In the context of Indian history, the Rakhmabai case of 1884 revolved around

1. women’s right to gain education
2. age of consent
3. restitution of conjugal rights

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

In 1885, after 12 years of marriage, Bhikaji sought “restitution of conjugal rights”, where the hearing and judgement was presided by Justice Robert Hill Pinhey. Rukhmabai had refused to live with the man she was married to as a child, as she had no say in the marriage. The British precedents could not be implied in this case, as British law was meant to be applied in the case of consenting adults. Justice Pinhey found this limitation in British law and found no previous cases of such nature in Hindu law. Hence his judgement on the case stated that Rukhmabai had been wed as an innocent child, had no say in the matter and now couldn’t be forced.

The case came up for retrial in the year 1886. There was a lot of backlash from society, with some Hindus stating that the law did not respect the Hindu rituals and customs, whereas some praised the step. The judgement received a lot of criticism in the newspapers. In March 1887, Rukhmabai was ordered to go live with her husband or spend six months in jail. Determined about her decision to not to return to Dadaji and to continue her education, Rukhmabai bravely said that she would rather face maximum penalty than accept the verdict given.

Subsequently, after numerous hearings, the marriage was affirmed, where Rukhmabai wrote to Queen Victoria. The Queen overruled the court’s verdict and dissolved the marriage. In July of 1888, Dadaji accepted monetary compensation of two thousand rupees to dissolve the marriage.

Indigo cultivation in India declined by the beginning of the 20th century because of

Gandhi was requested by Rajkumar Shukla, a local man, to look into the problems of the farmers in context of indigo planters of Champaran in Bihar. The European planters had been forcing the peasants to grow indigo on 3/20 part of the total land (called tinkathia system). When towards the end of the nineteenth century German synthetic dyes replaced indigo,the European planters demanded high rents and illegal dues from the peasants in order to maximise their profits before the peasants could shift to other crops. Besides, the peasants were forced to sell the produce at prices fixed by the Europeans.

Wellesley established the Fort William College at Calcutta because

In 1800, Wellesley (governor-general, 1798-1805) set up the Fort William College for training of new recruits. He wanted to train British civilians for administrative purpose in India. In 1806 Wellesley’s college was disapproved by the Court of Directors and instead the East India College was set up at Haileybury in England to impart two years’ training to the recruits.

With reference to the history of India, “Ulgulan” or the Great Tumult, is the description of which of the following events ?

The rebellion (ulgulan) of the Munda tribesmen, led by Birsa Munda, occurred during 1899-1900. For over thirty years the Munda sardars had been struggling against the destruction of their system of common land holdings by the intrusion of jagirdar, thikadar (revenue farmers) and merchant moneylenders.

With reference to the scholars/litterateurs of ancient India, consider the following statements :

1. Panini is associated with Pushyamitra Shunga.
2. Amarasimha is associated with Harshavardhana.
3. Kalidasa is associated with Chandra Gupta - II

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

1. Around 500 BCE, Panini wrote Ashtadhyayi, a work on Sanskrit grammar. Whereas Pushyamitra Shunga ruled from c. 185 to c. 149 BCE, was the founder and first ruler of the Shunga Empire in East India. He was a follower of Hinduism. There is time difference between the two of about 315-350 years, so both of them were not associated with each other.
2. The Buddhist author Amarasimha compiled a lexicon called Amarakosa during the Gupta period (mid-to-late 3rd century AD to 543 AD.) whereas HARSHAVARDHANA ruled from 606 to 647 A.D. So Amarimha and Harshavardhan were not associated to each other.
3. The power and glory of Gupta empire reached its peak under the rule Chandragupta II Vikramaditya. He also contributed to the general cultural progress of the age and patronized great literary figures like Kalidasa.

Only Statement 3 is correct.

In the context of recent advances in human reproductive technology, “Pronuclear Transfer” is used for

Pronuclear Transfer is a technique which is used to prevent any transfer of mitochondrial disease in offspring's. The technique is also known as "three-parent baby". In this technique, mother's egg is fertilised with father's sperm. Then a doner's (aka the second mother) eggs are fertilised with father's sperm. Once zygote formation takes place, zygote from mother's cell is removed and placed in doner's cell, after removing zygote formed in doner's cell. The mitochondria inherited by the baby is only from mother and not from father. 

With the present state of development, Artificial Intelligence can effectively do which of the following?

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

There are a lot of developments with respect to artificial intelligence and its uses have been covered in various magazines/articles. 

Statement 1 is correct - Reducing Industrial energy consumption. This was in news as Google started using AI to reduce its energy consumption. The programme could be highly significant: a 2017 report from Climate Change News suggested that data centres and the world communications sector could consume 20 percent of the world’s power by 2025.

In 2016, Google and DeepMind jointly developed an AI-powered recommendation system to improve the energy efficiency of the data centres, which run popular applications such as search, Gmail, and YouTube. But now DeepMind’s AI is directly controlling cooling independently in the facilities. Every five minutes, the cloud-based AI takes a snapshot of the cooling system from thousands of sensors and feeds it into DeepMind’s deep neural networks, which predict how different combinations of potential actions will effect future energy consumption.

(Ref:https://internetofbusiness.com/google-using-deepmind-ai-to-reduce-energy-consumption-by-30/)

Statement 2 is correct - Creating meaningful short stories with the help of Natural Language Generation and Processing. The software process that automatically creates a written narrative from data is called natural language generation (NLG). Its already used for a variety of content generation needs in our world including business intelligence dashboards, business data reports, personalized email, and in-app messaging communication, client financial portfolio updates and more. 

(Ref:https://www.forbes.com/sites/bernardmarr/2019/03/29/artificial-intelligence-can-now-write-amazing-content-what-does-that-mean-for-humans/#6096969150ab)

Statement 3 is correct - AI was also mentioned in the Lancet report in which disease diagnosis trials were conducted. 

(Ref:https://www.forbes.com/sites/nicolemartin1/2019/09/30/artificial-intelligence-is-being-used-to-diagnose-disease-and-design-new-drugs/#2d78baf244db)

Statement 4 is correct - AI is frequently used for texts to speech conversion and vice-versa.

(Ref:https://medium.com/gobeyond-ai/leveraging-machine-learning-in-text-to-speech-tools-and-applications-fe40ea661b0d)

Statement 5 is correct - All 387 traffic signals in Bengaluru will soon use artificial intelligence and regulate traffic more efficiently, according to Additional Commissioner of Police (Traffic) B R Ravikanthe Gowda. Under the new system, cameras study the traffic density and decide on how much time to allow vehicles to clear a signal. The new signals have in-built artificial intelligence units that calculate, assess and network with other signals automatically.

(Ref: https://www.deccanherald.com/metrolife/metrolife-your-bond-with-bengaluru/artificial-intelligence-assisted-traffic-signals-soon-763210.html)

With reference to Visible Light Communication (VLC) technology, which of the following statements are correct? Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Visible Light Communication is the most recent development in internet services. The concept of the service is that the electrical current shall be provided to the lighting equipment in household. These electrical currents shall be converted into lights. Out of the whole electromagnetic spectrum, between 380 nm and 780 nm, light emitted shall contain data which can be read by photon detectors in devices and provide connectivity with internet.

VLC can transmit large amounts of data, which is much faster than Bluetooth, as it will travel with speed of light itself. However, the problem is its range. If the light detector is not present in the room in which the light is transmitted which is containing the data, the devices would not be able to access data. Therefore, it is a short range technology. Therefore statement 2 is incorrect.

Statement 4 is correct - Another property of VLC is that it does not have any electromagnetic interference.

With reference to "Blockchain Technology". Consider the following statements:

1. It is a public ledger that everyone can inspect, but no single user controls.
2. The structure and design of blockchain is such that all the data in it are about cryptocurrency only.
3. Applications that depend on basic features of blockchain can be developed without anybody's permission.

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

Blockchain technology was recently in news for its use fro cryptocurrency but it is not used only for cryptocurrency but it is used for series of operations such as advertising, real estate, banking, etc. Therefore statement 2 is incorrect.

Statements 1 and 3 are correct - Blockchain works on simple technique. Data is stored in blocks, these blocks can be mined over several networks. One block will contain information for which it is designed. If the blockchain is about cryptocurrency, then the data with respect to cryptocurrency will be stored in block.

Other than data, there are two more things which are stored in a block - hash and hash of previous block. Hash of the block is the identification code for the block which is contained in the block. The block will contain hash of previous block. In this way, two blocks are connected to each other. Any change in one block, will lead to change in the hash of the block, which will require change in the previous block. Changes in previous block will require changes in its prior block.

Understand it with the help of example;

Block 1 contains data D1, hash - abc, previous hash - 000

Block 2 contains data D2, hash - efg, previous hash - abc

Block 3 contain data D3, hash - ijk, previous hash - efg

Any change in Block 2, will change its hash, and since Block 3 also stores that hash, changes will be required in Block 3 as well. Changes in block 3 will change its hash, which will then require changes in Block 4 and so forth. Therefore, it is a public ledger that everyone can own, once one mines the block through simple programs, but no one controls. This completely decentralised technology and every can start it without any prior permission.

With reference to the carbon nanotubes, consider the following statements.

1. They can be used as carrier of drugs and antigens in human body.
2. They can be made into artificial blood capillaries for an injured part of the human body.
3. They can be used in biochemical sensors.
4. Carbon nanotubes are biodegradable.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

Carbon nanotubes - These are cylindrical molecules that consist of rolled-up sheets of single-layer carbon atoms (graphene). There are single-walled nanotubes (with a diameter of less than 1 nanometer) and multi-walled nanotubes (with diameters reaching more than 100 nm). These are chemically bonded with sp2 bonds which is an extremely strong form of molecular interaction. They develop ultra-high-strength and low-weight materials that possess highly conductive electrical and thermal properties. Carbon nanotubes are promising drug delivery platforms that can be functionalized with a variety of biomolecules, such as antibodies, proteins, antigens, and DNA. Carbon nanotubes can easily penetrate cells and improve the pharmacological and therapeutic profile, and efficacy of the drug. Hence statement 1 is correct.

Biotechnology facilitates the making of nanodevices using blood-compatible nanomaterials as building blocks for biomedical applications such as artificial implants including structural tissue replacements, artificial blood vessels, or functional devices such as drug delivery matrices. Using carbon nanotube as an artificial blood vessel can create blood clotting, therefore it is unsafe. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

NASA has successfully demonstrated a miniaturized electronics technology with extremely high sensitivity for in-vitro detecting specific biomarker signatures, which is based on incorporating embedded vertically aligned carbon nanotubes as nanoelectrode arrays in diagnostics devices. Hence statement 3 is correct.

It has been demonstrated that functionalised carbon nanotubes can be degraded by oxidative enzymes. Multiple types of microbes including bacteria and fungi have the ability to degrade carbon nanotubes (CNTs), graphene (GRA), and their derivatives. Hence statement 4 is correct.

Consider the following activities:

1. Spraying pesticides on a crop field
2. Inspecting the craters of active volcano
3. Collecting breath samples from spouting whales for DNA analysis

At the present level of technology, which of the above activities can be successfully carried out by using drones?

All three functions mentioned have been performed in different parts of the world. In Peru, crater was inspected with the help of drones. In Andhra Pradesh, drones were banned from spraying fertilizers, however it is practised in many part of world. It has also been used for collecting water samples from aquatic animals to get their DNA data.

“The experiment will employ a trio of spacecraft flying in formation in the shape of an equilateral triangle that has sides one million kilometres long, with lasers shining between the craft.” The experiment in question refers to

Evolved Laser Interferometer Space Antenna (eLISA), is planned that uses three separate, but not independent, interferometers installed in three spacecraft located at the corners of a triangle with sides of some 5 million km (3 million miles). A mission to test the technology for eLISA, LISA Pathfinder, was launched in 2015.

LISA Pathfinder, a mission led by ESA (the European Space Agency) that included NASA contributions, successfully demonstrated technologies needed to build a future space-based gravitational wave observatory, a tool for detecting ripples in space-time produced by, among other things, merging black holes. A team of NASA scientists leveraged LISA Pathfinder's record-setting sensitivity for a different purpose much closer to home -- mapping microscopic dust shed by comets and asteroids.

The LISA spacecraft will need to use the technology tested by LISA Pathfinder. LISA itself plans to use a combination of three spacecraft, trailing the earth at a distance of about 50 million kilometres, these will orbit the sun. The three spacecraft will lie at the corners of a giant huge equilateral triangle, and will be about 5 million kilometres from each other. Using special laser beams and telescopes, the trio will measure gravitational waves.

The original 2008 LISA proposal had arms 5 million km (5 Gm) long. When downscoped to eLISA in 2013, arms of 1 million km were proposed. The approved 2017 LISA proposal has arms 2.5 million km (2.5 Gm) long.

The three spacecraft are expected to act as an interferometer which can detect gravitational waves, ripples in the fabric of space-time, caused by mergers of supermassive black holes. Since their are three points from which the observation is carried out, this space antenna will be able to pinpoint the location of the source of the detected gravitational waves to a high accuracy. This mission is to be carried out jointly by NASA and ESA (the European Space Agency).

As a prelude to this massive mission, the smaller LISA Pathfinder was launched by ESA in 2015. This is stationed around the L1 point between the Earth and the Sun which is nearly 1.5 million kmaway from the Earth. The aim of the mission is to demonstrate the technology needed to establish a space-based observatory to study gravitational waves. LISA Pathfinder was launched on December 3, 2015. It reached it's operational orbit this January and started operations on March 1.

Consider the following statements.

1. Genetic changes can be introduced in the cells that produce eggs or sperms of a prospective parent.
2. A person’s genome can be edited before birth at the early embryonic stage.
3. Human induced pluripotent stem cells can be injected into the embryo of a pig.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

In the cells of the prospective parents, producing eggs and sperms, changes can be made made both gentic and epigenetic. The genetic changes are made after altering the combination of genes which is responsible for creation of a protein, which is responsible for creation of human parts/ components. There are 4 components which make gene, i.e. A, T, C and G. They combine in triplets to create an amino acid chain, which further combine to create protein, which also leads to development of cells. Since the sequence of the genes responsible for sperm generation and egg generation is known, changes can be made in the cells of prospective parents.

In the recent years, an experiment was disclosed, in which doctors have edited genes of an embryonic baby whose parents were suffering from HIV-AIDS. Due to this, the baby too was in danger of acquiring HIV-AIDS, therefore her genes were edited in embryo to make her immune from the disease using Cas-9 genetic scissor. Therefore, statement 2 is also correct.

Statement 3 is correct - The experiment was reported in 2018, in which human pluripotent stem cell were found to be effective after they were injected to pigs and cattle.

What is the importance of using Pneumococcal Conjugate Vaccines in India?

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Statements 1 is correct - Pneumococcal Conjugate Vaccines (PCV) is a mix of several bacteria of the pneumococci family, which are known to cause pneumonia — hence ‘conjugate’ in the name. Pneumonia caused by the pneumococcus bacteria is supposed to be the most common. Pneumococcal disease refers to any illness caused by pneumococcal bacteria. These bacteria can cause many types of illnesses, including pneumonia, which is an infection of the lungs. Pneumococcal bacteria are one of the most common causes of pneumonia. Besides pneumonia, pneumococcal bacteria can also cause:

• Ear infections
• Sinus infections
• Meningitis (infection of the tissue covering the brain and spinal cord)
• Bacteremia (bloodstream infection)

The pneumococcus (Streptococcus pneumoniae) is one of the most common causes of severe pneumonia among children. It can also lead to severe medical conditions like meningitis and sepsis.Pneumococcal Conjugate Vaccines (PCV) protects children against severe forms of pneumococcal disease, such as pneumonia and meningitis.

[Ref : (1) https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/simply-put-vaccination-net-grows-two-new-another-widens-4476058/

(2) https://indianexpress.com/article/india/india-introduces-new-vaccine-to-fight-pneumococcal-disease-4654548/

(3) https://www.livemint.com/science/health/impact-evaluation-delay-hurting-pneumococcal-conjugate-vaccine-scheme-expansion-11573650452601.html]

Statement 2 is also correct - It was introduced to reduce dependence of antibiotics that are not effective against drug-resistance bacteria.

[Ref : https://www.cdc.gov/vaccines/vpd/pneumo/public/index.html]

Statement 3 is incorrect - Most people who get a pneumococcal vaccine do not have any serious problems with it. With any medicine, including vaccines, there is a chance of side effects. These are usually mild and go away on there own within a few days, but serious reactions are possible.

[Ref : https://www.cdc.gov/vaccines/vpd/pneumo/public/index.html]

In India, the term “Public Key Infrastructure” is used in the context of

The Reserve Bank of India has been promoting Public Key Infrastructure (PKI)-based mode of transactions. In fact, recently the Technical Committee on Enabling Public Key Infrastructure in Payment System Applications recommended that PKI-based authentication facility be made available for all banking transactions across users—companies or individuals—in a phased way.

In a PKI-based system, users can exchange data or money in a secured way through the Internet by using a pair of cryptographic keys. Cryptography is a method of protecting information by transforming it into a format that can’t be read by an unauthorized entity. In India, a certifying authority issues a digital certificate that consists of a public key and a private key. These are random alphanumeric strings, which can be used as a digital signature while making a transaction. So, for instance, if an individual makes a banking transaction and authenticates it with a private key, which is only known to her, the recipient bank will enter the public key of the individual and ascertain the instruction’s authenticity.

Which of the following statements are correct regarding the general difference between plant and animal cells?

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is incorrect - Plant cells, in addition to the plasma membrane, have another rigid outer covering called the cell wall. The cell wall lies outside the plasma membrane. The plant cell wall is mainly composed of cellulose. Cellulose is a complex substance and provides structural strength to plants. On the had animal cells do not have cell wall.

Statement 3 is correct - Vacuoles are storage sacs for solid or liquid contents. Vacuoles are small sized in animal cells while plant cells have very large vacuoles. In plant cells vacuoles are full of cell sap and provide turgidity and rigidity to the cell. Many substances of importance in the life of the plant cell are stored in vacuoles. These include amino acids, sugars, various organic acids and some proteins. Most mature plant cells have a large central vacuole that helps to maintain the turgidity of the cell and stores important substances including wastes.

Which of the following reasons/factors are responsible for exposure to benzene pollution?

Select the correct answer using the codes given in the options:

Benzene pollution is because of two types - indoor benzene pollution and outdoor.

Automobile exhaust, industrial exhaust, coal and natural gas exhaust are some of the examples of benzene pollution outdoor.

There are numerous reasons for indoor benzene pollution - burning of wood, certain furnishing materials and polymeric materials such as vinyl, PVC and rubber floorings, as well as nylon carpets and SBR-latex-backed carpets, may contain trace levels of benzene. Benzene is also present in particleboard furniture, plywood, fibreglass, flooring adhesives, paints, wood panelling, caulking and paint remover. In the process of varnishing, protective paint is applied on wood which contains volatile organic component in form of benzene.
Though, Polyurethane consists of benzene and toluene, but it leads to benzene pollution cannot be confirmed.

As per UPSC 2020 official answer key, statements 4 and 5 are incorrect.

If another global financial crisis happens in the near future, which of the following actions/policies are most likely to give some immunity to India?

Select the correct answer using the codes given in the options:

Statement 1 is correct - Post Global Financial Crises, the RBI had issued causes of impact of the crisis in India. Among the many, exposure to volatile foreign funds was one among the many reasons for decline in India. Therefore, to minimise the risks of another global financial crises, decisions should be made which discourages volatile foreign investments. Volatile foreign investments are those investments which exit and enter in any financial market frequently and swiftly. Whenever loss in investment is expected, the foreign investments of short term nature exit on the first sign, as a result the losses are intensified. Therefore dependency on short term foreign funding should be ignored.

Statement 2 is incorrect - In case of opening up to foreign banks, Indian investments get prone to fluctuations of foreign banks. If foreign banks face losses and starts bankrupting then its impact on Indian investment will be severe. This will increase dependency on foreign funding which is not advisable in context of reducing risk of another global financial crises.

Statement 3 is incorrect - Full Capital Account Convertibility will mean that 100% of foreign currency can be converted into Indian currency to acquire capital assets and vice-versa. This again puts Indian currency at risk with domestic currency which is not advisable to reduce risk.

If you withdraw 1,00,000 in cash from your Demand- Deposit Account at your bank, the immediate effect on aggregate money supply in the economy will be

The money supply in an economy refers to the total currency issued by the RBI and held by the people and also money kept by the banking and other financial institutions. The RBI classifies the money supply into M1, M2, M3 and M4. In these classifications,

M1 = CU + DD ; which means M1 is equal to demand deposits and currency held with public.

M2 = M1 + Savings deposits with Post Office savings banks

M3 = M1 + Net time deposits of commercial banks

M4 = M3 + Total deposits with Post Office savings organisations (excluding National Savings Certificates)

M1 and M2 are known as narrow money. M3 and M4 are known as broad money.

where, CU is currency (notes plus coins) held by the public and DD is net demand deposits held by commercial banks. The word ‘net’ implies that only deposits of the public held by the banks are to be included in money supply. The interbank deposits, which a commercial bank holds in other commercial banks, are not to be regarded as part of money supply. M3 is the most commonly used measure of money supply. It is also known as aggregate monetary resources.

So when 1,00,000 is withdrawn from demand deposits and is taken in form of currency held, the money supply remains unchanged, So CU increases and DD decreases by the same amount, M1 remains unchanged. As M3 is sum of M1 and Net time deposits of commercial banks, so M3 i.e. aggregate monetary resources remains unchanged.

With reference to Foreign Direct Investment in India, which "one of the following is considered its major characteristic?

The direct form of Foreign Investment was called as the foreign direct investment (FDI) under which the MNCs were allowed to set up their firms in India in the different sectors varying from 26 per cent to 100 per cent ownership with them—Enron and Coke being the flag-bearers. The FDI started in 1991 itself. The indirect form of foreign investment (i.e., in the assets owned by the Indian firms in equity capital) was called the portfolio investment scheme (PIS) in the country, which formally commenced in 1994. Under the PIS the foreign institutional investors (FIIs) having good track record are allowed to invest in the Indian security/stock market. The FIIs need to register themselves as a stock broker with SEBI. It means India has not allowed individual foreign investment in the security market still, only institutional investment has been allowed till now.

Foreign direct investment (FDI) is an important driver of economic growth which helps in— sustaining high growth rate, increasing productivity, a major source of non-debt financial resources, and employment generation.

With reference to international trade of India at present, which of the following statements is/are correct?

Statements 1 and 4 are correct - India faces Current Account Deficit equal to 1.5% of the GDP. The largest component of the Current Account Deficit is Merchandise Trade Deficit. This means that merchandise exports are less than the merchandise imports (Figure attached)

Statement 3 is correct - The services sector contributes more than 50% of the foreign currency requirement to finance the deficit earned in merchandise trade. This means that the services sector is earning foreign currency, which means there are more services export than service imports. The surplus on net services has been significantly financing the merchandise trade deficit. The financing reached its peak to about two-thirds of merchandise deficit in 2016-17 before declining to less than half in the last couple of years (Figure attached). Given a steady decline in net services to GDP ratio, the extent of financing will steadily fall unless merchandise trade deficit improves in relation to GDP.

Statement 2 is incorrect - Other than iron and steel, all other components mentioned - chemicals, fertilizers, and in machinery, imports have increased in the recent years as per the data given by the Economic Survey 2019-2020. As one can see from figure, iron and steel imports have reduced form 2.8% in 2011-12 to 2.5% in 2019-2020.

The term ‘West Texas Intermediate’, sometimes found in news, refers to a grade of

West Texas Intermediate (WTI) crude oil is a specific grade of crude oil and one of the main three benchmarks in oil pricing, along with Brent and Dubai Crude. WTI is known as a light sweet oil because it contains 0.24% sulfur, making it "sweet," and has a low density, making it "light." It is the underlying commodity of the New York Mercantile Exchange's (NYMEX) oil futures contract and is considered a high-quality oil that is easily refined.

In the context of the Indian economy, non-financial debt includes which of the following? 

1. Housing loans owed by households.
2. Amounts outstanding on credit cards.
3. Treasury bills.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

In this question, one has to see statements in the light of issuing authority whether it is financial authorities like banks or finance institutions or it is non-financial companies, i.e. government entities, households and businesses.

Non Financial Debts are those debts which are not owed to the financial sector, such as banks and finance institutions. For example - Treasury Bill, the debt is raised from general public other than the banks. Non-financial debt consists of credit instruments issued by governmental entities, households and businesses that are not included in the financial sector. Financial companies include commercial and investment banks, insurance companies, finance companies, mortgage lenders and investment firms. Examples of non-financial companies or entities that are non-financial and, therefore issue non-financial debt are manufacturing companies, service companies, government entities and households.

So Treasury bill is one of the non-financial debt.

Non-Financial Debts are contractual obligations to repay monetary loans, often with related interest expense. Non-financial debt includes industrial or commercial loans, Treasury bills and credit card balances. They share most of the same characteristics with financial debt, except the issuers are non-financial. They have maturities ranging from one day to perpetuity, and can be used as loans to finance a company's growth. Companies can also use more sophisticated debt instruments for hedging purposes.

In India, why are some nuclear reactors kept under “IAEA Safeguards” while others are not?

The number of new reactors to be placed under IAEA safeguards only after assessing if these will be fuelled by uranium procured from abroad. Their are at present (2019) 22 operational reactors, of which 14 are under the International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) safeguards as these use imported fuel.

With reference to Trade-Related Investment Measures (TRIMS), which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Quantitative Restrictions on imports by foreign investors are prohibited.
2. They apply to investment measures related to trade in both goods and services.
3. They are not concerned with the regulations of foreign investments.

This question can be solved through elimination method as well. The TRIMS agreement is based on GATT which is concerned only with trade of goods and not services.Therefore statement 2 is incorrect. This leaves only Option C as the correct answer.

Statements 1 and 3 are correct. The TRIMS Agreement evolved after the Uruguay Round of WTO. Under the agreement, it was decided that no nation shall make any decision which will be violative of GATT Article III and GATT Article XI. GATT Article XI provides that no prohibition or restrictions other than import duties shall be made on foreign investment on goods, whether it is in form of quota or in form of import and export license. Therefore, under the TRIMS, no country can make any quantitative restrictions on foreign investment. Therefore statement 1 is correct.

TRIMS are not concerned with respect to foreign investments. The Uruguay Round of WTO intensively discussed any possibility of multilateral agreement with respect to Foreign investments but was not implemented. However, there exist some of the multi-party agreements on FDI but not under WTO. The TRIMS is exclusively for goods trade. Agreement on investment would also mean agreement on investment services such as FII which is not covered under it.

If the RBI decides to adopt an expansionist monetary policy, which of the following would it notdo?

1. Cut and optimize the Statutory Liquidity Ratio
2. Increase the Marginal Standing Facility Rate
3. Cut the Bank Rate and Repo Rate

Statement 1 is correct - The Reserve Bank of India or RBI mandates that banks store a proportion of their deposits in the form of cash so that the same can be given to the bank’s customers if the need arises. The percentage of cash required to be kept in reserve, vis-a-vis a bank’s total deposit, is called the Cash Reserve Ratio.

Every bank must have a specified portion of there Net Demand and Time Liabilities (NDTL) in the form of cash, gold, or other liquid assets by the day’s end. The ratio of these liquid assets to the demand and time liabilities is called the Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR). 

Expansionist monetary policy is adopted when the RBI wants to increase liquidity in the market. This is possible when it reduces reserve ratios like CRR and SLR.

Statement 2 is incorrect - Marginal Standing Facility (MSF) is a new scheme announced by the RBI in its Monetary Policy, 2011–12 which came into effect from May, 2011. It is a special window for the commercial banks to borrow from the RBI against approved government securities, in case of an emergency such as an acute cash shortage. MSF rate is generally higher then Repo rate. An increase in the MSF rate leads to higher borrowing cost for the banks and thus, reduces money supply in the economy.

Statement 3 is correct - Repo rate, also known as the benchmark interest rate is the rate at which the RBI lends money to the banks for a short term. When the repo rate increases, borrowing from RBI becomes more expensive. This in turn, raises the interest rate in the economy and therefore reduces the total money supply.

If RBI wants to make it more expensive for the banks to borrow money, it increases the repo rate. Similarly, if it wants to make it cheaper for banks to borrow money it reduces the repo rate.

With reference to the Indian economy after the 1991 economic liberalization, consider the following statements:

1. Worker productivity (Rs per worker at 2004 - 05 prices) increased in urban areas while it decreased in rural areas.
2. The percentage share of rural areas in the workforce steadily increased,
3. In rural areas, the growth in non-farm economy increased.
4. The growth rate in rural employment decreased.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

Statement 1 is incorrect - Worker productivity (Rs per worker at 2004 - 05 prices) increased for both urban and rural areas.

[Ref:as per trends in worker productivity (at current prices) across different worker categories in India, table 61. Niti Aayog website]

Statement 2 is incorrect - The percentage share of rural areas in the workforce has declined from 77% to 70% since 1991. Rural share in total employment also witnessed a decline but its pace did not match with the changes in its share in national output or income. The declining contribution of rural areas in national output without a commensurate reduction in its share in employment implies that a major portion of the overall economic growth in the country came from the capital-intensive sectors in urban areas without generating significant employment during the period under consideration.

[Ref:as per table 2.1 Niti Aayog website]

Statement 3 is correct - During the post-reform period (1993-94 and 2004-05), growth in agricultural sector decelerated to 1.87 per cent, whereas growth rate in non-farm economy accelerated to 7.93 per cent. The effect of slowdown in agriculture on rural economy was offset by significantly higher growth in non-farm sectors, which accelerated growth rate in rural economy to above 5 per cent as compared to 3.72 during the pre-reforms period. These changes further reduced the share of agriculture in rural economy from 57 per cent in 1993-94 to 39 per cent in 2004- 05. Thus, rural economy became more non-agricultural than agricultural by the year 2004-05.

[Ref : as per table 3.2 Niti Aayog website]

Statement 4 is correct - The growth rate in rural employment since 1991 has declined as per the data. A perusal of Table 3.1 shows that rural employment and output followed different growth patterns. Rural employment showed 2.16 per cent annual growth rate during the pre-reform period, which decelerated in the post-reform period to 1.45% and turned negative (-0.28%) in the period of economic acceleration. The output growth rate in the same sub-periods accelerated.3 Thus, employment increased at a much lower rate compared to output and it even declined in the wake of high growth in output post 2004-05.

Consider the following statements:

1. In terms of short-term credit delivery to the agriculture sector, District Central Cooperative Banks (DCCB) deliver more credit in comparison to Scheduled Commercial Banks and Regional Rural Banks.
2. One of the most important functions of DCCBs is to provide funds to the Primary Agricultural Credit Societies.

Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?

Statement 1 is incorrect - As per the RBI report, total agricultural credit disbursed by Schedule Commercial Banks is 75% of total agricultural credit issued in the country. It is followed by Cooperative Banks, which includes District Central Cooperative Banks (DCCB), Primary Agriculture Credit Societies (PACS), and State Cooperative Banks, which is 15% of total agriculture credit. It is followed by Regional Rural Banks, which constitute 5% of total agri credit.

Statement 2 is correct - There are many functions of the DCCB. It is the apex cooperative bank in the district and in this capacity it funds to the Primary Credit Societies (PACS) which are based in village and provide credit to the farmers.

In India, under cyber insurance for individuals, which of the following benefits are generally covered, in addition to payment for the loss of funds and other benefits ?

1. Cost of restoration of the computer system in case of malware disrupting access to one’s computer.
2. Cost of a new computer if some miscreant wilfully damages it, if proved so.
3. Cost of hiring a specialized consultant to minimize the loss in case of cyber extortion.
4. Cost of defence in the Court of Law if any third party files a suit.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Statements 1, 3 and 4 are correct - Recently, ICICI Lombard General Insurance had announced the launch of it's Retail Cyber Liability Insurance policy. This policy gives cover to individuals and their families against any cyber frauds or digital risks that could result in a financial loss and taint in reputation. The retail cyber insurance product is a form of insurance that protects individuals against losses due to various factors, including online theft and unauthorized transactions. This product includes protection against identity theft, cyber bullying, cyber extortion, malware intrusion, financial loss due to unauthorized and fraudulent use of bank account, credit card and mobile wallet frauds, and legal expenses arising out of any covered risk. ICICI Lombard has also included claims for newer threats such as damage to reputation and restoring digital reputation which would involve removal of the harmful publication from the internet. Besides, it covers individual losses, including the wage a person may have earned if not for the cyber crime which one may have faced.

[Ref :https://www.livemint.com/insurance/news/this-cyber-insurance-policy-to-cover-you-from-debit-credit-card-frauds-to-data-breaches-details-here-11595947988903.html]

HDFC ERGO has introduced E@Secure that offers protection against cyber risks and frauds carried out from any device and from any location worldwide. Different cyber risks, such as unauthorized online transactions, phishing and email spoofing, e-extortion, identity theft, damage to e-reputation and cyber bullying are covered in the policy. The policy also pays for legal cost and expenses and legal advice sought by the insured in case of a legal dispute arising out of specified risks covered in the policy.This policy also covers the entire family as children are also increasingly present on social media and susceptible to online stalking or harassment. The policy covers the expenses incurred on counselling sessions with a psychologist due to the stress one may undergo as a result of cyber bullying or harassment. 

[Ref: https://www.theweek.in/news/biz-tech/2020/07/03/hike-in-cybercrimes-insurance-firms-eye-to-cover-more-individuals.html]

In cases of malware disruption which damages access to the computer, cyber insurance will pay the cost of restoration of the computer system, software and data. The insurance company will also pay the policyholder the legal fees to defend the policyholder in the court of law if any third party files a suit against the policyholder for their loss of data.

[Ref: http://www.moneycontrol.com/india/newsarticle/news_print.php?autono=10986661&;sr_no=0&;classic=true]

Phishing has increasingly become a popular way for cyber criminals, wherein a scammer uses an authentic-looking page or email from trusted companies, such as online payment firms, to trick users into giving out they're personal information, such as log-in credentials, credit card and bank account details, personal identification ID details, and other important personal information. Therefore, if the customer who falls victim to a phishing scam has a cyber-insurance cover, it will not only pay for the loss of fund but also incur the cost of filing a criminal complaint against the culprit once found. Also in cases of cyber extortion, the insurance company will pay all the costs of hiring a specialised consultant to mitigate and minimise the loss.

[Ref: http://www.moneycontrol.com/india/newsarticle/news_print.php?autono=10986661&;sr_no=0&;classic=true]

In the case of Cyber extortion loss a comprehensive cyber insurance plan will also provide coverage for expenses incurred on Counselling Services treatment, claim for Damages Against Third Party for Privacy Breach and Data Breach, Cyber Extortion Loss and transportation for attending Court summons.

[Ref: http://www.moneycontrol.com/india/newsarticle/news_print.php?autono=10986661&;sr_no=0&;classic=true]

Statement 2 is incorrect - Cyber security insurance safeguards online users from risks arising out of multiple unpleasant circumstances. However, in certain cases, you cannot claim the insurance. Some of the exclusions under the policy are:

• Dishonest or improper conduct of the insured which led to the claim.
• Physical injury caused due to cyber attack.
• Property damage caused by cyber attack.
• Unsolicited communications by the policy holder.
• Mechanical failure, standard depreciation, electrical disturbance and media failure or malfunction.

[Ref: https://www.paisabazaar.com/commercial-insurance/cyber-security-insurance/]

In India, which of the following can be considered as public investment in agriculture?

1. Fixing Minimum Support Price for agricultural produce of all crops.
2. Computerization of Primary Agricultural Credit Societies.
3. Social Capital development.
4. Free electricity supply to farmers.
5. Waiver of agricultural loans by the banking system.
6. Setting up of cold storage facilities by the governments.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Public expenditures on agriculture include short-term costs as well as long-term investments. Investment in agriculture and forestry includes government expenditures directed to agricultural infrastructure, research and development and education and training. Human capital development is a key component of public agricultural investment. 

Public investment in agriculture sector especially in infrastructure, which includes irrigation, power, roads, market linkages and research and extension (which played a crucial role in the Green Revolution), has fallen in the reform period (post 1991 period).

Further, the removal of fertiliser subsidy has led to increase in the cost of production, which has severely affected the small and marginal farmers. This sector has been experiencing a number of policy changes such as reduction in import duties on agricultural products, removal of minimum support price and lifting of quantitative restrictions on agricultural products; these have adversely affected Indian farmers as they now have to face increased international competition.

What is the importance of the term “Interest Coverage Ratio” of a firm in India ?

1. It helps in understanding the present risk of a firm that a bank is going to give loan to.
2. It helps in evaluating the emerging risk of a firm that a bank is going to give loan to.
3. The higher a borrowing firm’s level of Interest Coverage Ratio, the worse is its ability to service its debt.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

The Reserve Bank of India recently asked banks to review various financial parameters of there borrowers, including Interest Coverage Ratio (ICR), in order to frame an appropriate policy for making provisions for standard assets at a higher level then the rules require. It indicates the ability of a firm to service the debt and repay it over the tenure of the loan. It basically identifies how many times earnings can pay the interest required by existing debt. The ratio is calculated by dividing a company’s earnings before interest and taxes by the company’s interest expenses for a given period. Higher the ICR, better will be the ability to service its debt.

It is one of the parameters that help understand and evaluate present and emerging risks of a firm a bank is lending to. An analysis of ICR, among other parameters, helps the banks assess the borrowers’ financial strength and ability to service a loan. The number of times interest is covered determines the viability of debt. Banks often insert terms in there legal documents (loan terms/note clauses) mandating a minimum coverage ratio for debt.

The banking sector is plagued with severe stressed assets and defaults that have impacted the sector’s profitability. The regulator want banks to be prudent in they're assessment of future stress in they're asset (loan) portfolio. The level of corporate leverage has emerged as an important parameter to determine potential stress that could be they're in a loan. ICR is one of the important factors that indicate the possibility of stress in a bank’s loan book and the ability of the borrower to repay a loan.

Which of the following factors/policies were affecting the price of rice in India in the recent past?

1. Minimum Support Price
2. Government’s trading
3. Government’s stockpiling
4. Consumer subsidies

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

Statement 1 is correct - Minimum Support Price (MSP) is a form of market intervention by the Government of India to insure agricultural producers against any sharp fall in farm prices —a guarantee price to save farmers from distress sale. The MSPs are announced at the beginning of the sowing season for certain crops on the basis of the recommendations of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP, 1985). For example, the government in July 2019 hiked MSP on paddy by 65 rupees a quintal. MSP on paddy increased from Rs 1750 per quintal to Rs 1815 per quintal. This decision was to increase farmer’s income without considering the international market of rice. 

Statement 2 is correct - Food ministry runs the open market sale scheme (OMSS). Excess stocks are sold through OMSS under reserve price through open tender. Current reserve price for rice is at Rs 2785 per quintal that is way higher then the international price of long grain white rice 25% broken (estimated below 2200 per quintal). This is aimed at serving the following objectives: (i) to enhance market supply of foodgrains; (ii) to exercise a moderating influence on open market prices; and (iii) to offload surplus stocks.

Statement 3 is correct - Buffer stock refers to a ‘reserve’ of commodity to offset price fluctuations and unforeseen emergencies. Introduced in 1969 (4th Plan, 1969-74), under it, Government of India maintains a buffer stock of selected foodgrains (wheat and rice) in the Central Pool for— (i) Meeting the prescribed minimum buffer stock norms for food security, (ii) Monthly release of foodgrains for supply through Targeted Public Distribution System (TPDS) and Other Welfare Schemes (OWS), (iii) Meeting emergency situations arising out of unexpected crop failure, natural disasters, etc., and (iv) Price stabilisation or market intervention to augment supply so as to help moderate the open market prices.

Statement 4 is correct - Consumer subsidies were another policy which the governments in several countries were likely to use for controlling food prices. This required farmers to sell their commodities to government agencies at a lower price. The agencies then sold the commodities to consumers at a price much below the market price.

In India, The Central Government extends price support for paddy, coarse grains and wheat through the FCI and State Agencies. All the foodgrains conforming to the prescribed specification offered for sale at specified centres are bought by the public procurement agencies at the Minimum Support Price (MSP). The foodgrains so procured are allocated to the States for distribution to the identified beneficiaries under the Targeted Public Distribution System (TPDS) and other Welfare Schemes at subsidized prices. The difference between the economic cost of foodgrains and Issue Prices is incurred by the Central Government as consumer subsidy. 

The increase in the food subsidy bill is determined by the rate at which the MSPs for wheat and rice increase and the economic cost of handling grains (their procurement, stocking and distribution to the targeted households). This has been the major factor for ballooning food subsidy bill.

Consider the following statements:

1. The value of Indo-Sri Lanka trade has consistently increased in the last decade.
2. “Textile and textile articles” constitute an important item of trade between India and Bangladesh.
3. In the last five years, Nepal has been / the largest trading partner of India in South Asia. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 

According to an analysis by the Department of Commerce, imports into the country from South Asian nations have not shown any substantial increase from 2012-13 to 2016-17, except in 2014-15 when they rose by 19 per cent, but exports from India have been rising steadily for the most part. India has consistently maintained a substantial trade surplus with South Asia over the period.

Statement 1 is incorrect - Bilateral trade between India and Sri Lanka recorded almost consistent decline since last year until July 2020, in which trade registered increase. However the increase was still lower than the previous year's highest level.

[Ref:https://tradingeconomics.com/india/exports-to-sri-lanka]

Statement 2 is correct - Garment items dominate Bangladesh’s exports to India as it's demand among the growing middle-income customers is high. Bangladesh also exports home textile, processed food, cement, furniture, leather and leather goods, but the volume is very small. 

Statement 3 is incorrect - India’s trade with countries in South Asia has remained less then 4% of it's global trade since the late 1980s while China has increased it's exports to the region by 546%, from $8 billion in 2005 to $52 billion in 2018. India’s largest export market in the South Asia region is Bangladesh, followed by Sri Lanka and Nepal, whereas the largest imports by value come from Myanmar, Sri Lanka and Bangladesh. All countries in the neighbourhood have a trade deficit with India, the highest in 2018 being Bangladesh ($7.6 billion), followed by Nepal ($6.8 billion).

In which one of the following groups are all the four countries members of G20 ?

The Group of Twenty, or G20, is the premier forum for international cooperation on the most important aspects of the international economic and financial agenda. It brings together the world’s major advanced and emerging economies.

The G20 comprises Argentina, Australia, Brazil, Canada, China, EU, France, Germany, India, Indonesia, Italy, Japan, Mexico, Russia, Saudi Arabia, South Africa, South Korea, Turkey, UK and USA. The G20 Countries together represent around 90% of global GDP, 80% of global trade, and two thirds of the world’s population.

Under the Kisan Credit Card scheme, short-term credit support is given to farmers for which of the following purposes?

1. Working capital for maintenance of farm assets
2. Purchase of combine harvesters, tractors and mini trucks
3. Consumption requirements of farm households
4. Post-harvest expenses
5. Construction of family house and setting up of village cold storage facility

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

This question can be solved through elimination method. Purchase of combine harvesters, tractors and mini truck etc, does not come under the dhort term credit, as these are heavy machinery for which term loan facility is available under the Kisan Credit Card scheme. So statement 2 is incorrect, so option left is Option B i.e. statements 1,3 and 4 are correct.

Term loans for investments towards land development, minor irrigation, purchase of farm equipments and allied agricultural activities. The banks may fix the quantum of credit for term and working capital limit for agricultural and allied activities, etc., based on the unit cost of the asset/s proposed to be acquired by the farmer, the allied activities already being undertaken on the farm, the bank’s judgment on repayment capacity vis-a-vis total loan burden devolving on the farmer, including existing loan obligations.

The long term loan limit is based on the proposed investments during the five year period and the bank’s perception on the repaying capacity of the farmer.

Consider the following statements :

1. The weightage of food in Consumer Price Index (CPI) is higher than that in Wholesale Price Index (WPI).
2. The WPI does not capture changes in the prices of services, which CPI does.
3. Reserve Bank of India has now adopted WPI as its key measure of inflation and to decide on changing the key policy rates.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

Statement 1 is correct - As per the data given in the Economic Survey 2019-2020, the weightage of food in Consumer Price Index (CPI) Combined is 45.9% as compared to 24.4% in Wholesale Price Index (WPI).

Statement 2 is correct - The CPI measures the average change in prices over time that consumers pay for a basket of goods and services, commonly known as inflation, whereas WPI does not measure the average change in prices.

Statement 3 is incorrect - In April 2014, the RBI had adopted the Consumer Price Index (CPI) as its key measure of inflation.

Consider the following pairs :

River Flows into

1. Mekong — Andaman Sea

2. Thames — Irish Sea

3. Volga — Caspian Sea

4. Zambezi —- Indian Ocean

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched ?

1. Statement 1 is incorrect: The Mekong, or Mekong River,is a trans-boundary river in East Asia and Southeast Asia. It is the world's twelfth longest river and the seventh longest in Asia. From the Tibetan Plateau the river runs through China, Myanmar, Laos, Thailand, Cambodia, and Vietnam and ultimately falls in South China Sea.
2. Statement 2 is incorrect: The River Thames, known alternatively in parts as the River Isis, is a river that flows through southern England including London. At 215 miles (346 km), it is the longest river entirely in England and the second-longest in the United Kingdom, after the River Severn. It flows through Oxford (where it is called the Isis), Reading, Henley-on-Thames and Windsor. The lower reaches of the river are called the Tideway, derived from its long tidal reach up to Teddington Lock. It rises at Thames Head in Gloucestershire, and flows into the North Seavia the Thames Estuary. The Thames drains the whole of Greater London.
3. Statement 3 is correct:The Volga is the longest river in Europe. Flowing through Central Russia to Southern Russia and into the Caspian Sea, it has a length of 3,531 km (2,194 mi) and a catchment area of 1,360,000 km2 (530,000 sq mi). It is also Europe's largest river in terms of discharge and drainage basin. It is widely regarded as the national river of Russia.
4. Statement 4 is correct: The Zambezi River is the fourth longest in Africa, after the NILE, CONGO, and NIGER rivers. It runs for 1,678 miles across the southern part of the continent, from ZAMBIA through ANGOLA, NAMIBIA, BOTSWANA, ZIMBABWE, and MOZAMBIQUE before emptying into the Indian Ocean.

Consider the following statements :

1. In the case of all cereals, pulses and oil-seeds, the procurement at Minimum Support Price (MSP) is unlimited in any State/UT of India.

2. In the case of cereals and pulses, the MSP is fixed in any State/UT at a level to which the market price will never rise.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

Statement 1 is incorrect - The procurement in case of oilseeds is limited to only 25 quintals per farmer. This was increased during Covid-19 pandemic to 40 quintals per farmer. In other words, State/UT can not procure oilseed more than 25% of total output in a given year. 

Statement 2 is incorrect - Minimum Support Price (MSP) is a form of market intervention by the Government of India to insure agricultural producers against any sharp fall in farm prices —a guarantee price to save farmers from distress sale. The MSPs are announced at the beginning of the sowing season for certain crops on the basis of the recommendations of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP, 1985). The major objectives are to support the farmers from distress sales and to procure food grains for public distribution. In case the market price for the commodity falls below the announced minimum price due to bumper production and glut in the market, government agencies purchase the entire quantity offered by the farmers at the announced minimum price. As Market price, by definition, is determined through demand and supply force. So, it is difficult to predict whether market price for any crop must be lower or higher as compared to MSP. Purpose of MSP is not to create a maximum price limit of that crop, but it is to provide minimum assurance to farmers that they will not get prices less than those. Market prices may or may not increase beyond limit Minimum Support Prices. 

With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements :

1. 'Commercial Paper’ is a short-term unsecured promissory note.
2. 'Certificate of Deposit’ is a long-term instrument issued by the Reserve Bank of India to a corporation.
3. 'Call Money* is a short-term finance used for interbank transactions.
4. ‘Zero-Coupon Bonds’ are the interest bearing short-term bonds issued by the Scheduled Commercial Banks to corporations.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

Statement 1 is correct - Commercial Paper (CP), was organised in 1990, is used by the corporate houses in India (which should be a listed company with a working capital of not less than ₹5 crore). The CP issuing companies need to obtain a specified credit rating from an agency approved by the RBI (such as CRISIL, ICRA, etc). Aimed to broaden investor participation, in October 2019, the SEBI allowed listing of the Commercial Papers.

Statement 2 is incorrect - Certificate of Deposit (CD) was organised in 1989, the CD is used by banks and issued to the depositorsfor a specified period ranging less than one year (short term not long term)—they are negotiable and tradeable in the money market. Since 1993 the RBI allowed the financial institutions to operate in it—IFCI, IDBI, IRBI (IIBI since 1997) and the Exim Bank—they can issue CDs for the maturity periods above one year and upto three years.

Statement 3 is correct - Call Money Market (CMM) is basically an inter-bank money market where funds are borrowed and lent, generally, for one day—that is why this is also known as overnight borrowing market (also called money at call). Fund can be borrowed/raised for a maximum period upto 14 days (called short notice). Borrowing in this market may take place against securities or without securities. Rate of interest in this market ‘glides’ with the ‘repo rate’ of the time the principle remains very simple—longer the period, higher the interest rate. Depending upon the availability and demand of fund in this market the real call rate revolves nearby the current repo rate. The scheduled commercial banks, co-operative banks operate in this market as both the borrowers and lenders while LIC, GIC, Mutual Funds, IDBI and NABARD are allowed to operate as only lenders in this market.

Statement 4 is incorrect - Zero Coupon Bond is a bond bearing zero coupon rate (i.e. no interest) sold at a price lower than its face value. Investors book profit when they sell it (at its face value). Such bonds are popularly used by the governments to raise long-term funds. In a situation of rate cut by the RBI, zero coupon bonds gain value-it means, they sell at higher prices. When there is an increase in rate, the opposite happens.

With reference to the cultural history of India, consider the following pairs. Which of the following pairs are matched correctly?

1. Parivrajaka ----- Renunciant and wanderer
2. Shramana ------ Priest with a high status
3. Upasaka -------- Lay follower of Buddhism

Pair 1 & 3 are matched correctly.

1. Parivrajak is a sanskrit word, whose literal meaning is a wanderer. In the ancient times, the Jain Monks and the Buddhist Monks were expected to be a Parivrajaka in order to preach their religion.
2. Vedic Brahmanism - drawing its identity from the Vedic corpus - was a religious form associated with socially dominant groups, supporting practices and beliefs that could be seen as an orthodoxy, there have been movements that have distanced themselves in various ways from Vedic Brahmanism. The Shramana group - Buddhism, Jainism and various 'heterodox' sects - is one such well -established group. Shramanas did not regard the brahmans as being of the highest status. The shramanas included a variety of ascetics, as well as the monks and lay followers of various sects - Buddhist, Jaina, Ajivika and others. Monks renounced social obligations to take on an alternative life when they joined the Order. They lived as equal members of the Order, denying caste distinctions. But they lived in monasteries near villages and towns so that they could draw on the support of the lay community, namely, those who were Buddhists or Jainas but were not initiated into renunciatory groups.
3. Upasaka are the male lay follower of Buddhism,and Upasika are the female lay followers of Buddhism.

Therefore all statements are correct.

With reference to the Indian Elephants, consider the following statements. Which of the given statements is/are correct?

1. The leader of an elephant group is a female.
2. The maximum gestation period can be 22 months.
3. An elephant can normally go on calving till the age of 40 years only.
4. Among the States in India, the highest elephant population is in Kerala

Elephants are the animals with very intricate social norms among themselves. They move in single file and they are always headed by a female elephant.Other than that they are also found to take care of babies of other elephants. Thus Statement 1 is correct.

Statement 2 is correct :Gestation periods for elephants can not exceed 22 months. The gestation period of elephant was in news since June when an elephant pregnant with one month baby died in Kerala after eating pineapple stuffed with crackers.

Statement 3 is incorrect: Calving period of elephant vary in case of African and Indian elephants. In African, it is 16 years and among Indian elephants, it is 22 years. In any case, 40 years is way too much.

Statement 4 is incorrect: Maximum population of elephant is found in state of Karnataka, followed by Assam and Kerala respectively.

Which of the following Protected Areas are located in Cauvery basin?

1. Nagarhole National Park
2. Papikonda National Park
3. Sathymanagalam Tiger Reserve
4. Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary

1) In December 2019, forest officials started butterfly census in Papikonda National Park, which is in the Godavari Delta. Therefore, it is in the Godavari basin and not in Cauvery basin. Statement 2 is eliminated and we are left with Option B and Option C.

This is the second consecutive year in which any question on Nilgiri Biosphere reserve is asked in prelims.

All three National Parks are in the Nilgiri Biosphere and the biosphere reserve is in the Cauvery Basin.

2) Nagarahole is derived its name from Naga, means snake and Hole refers to as streams. The park is also known as Rajiv Gandhi National Park located in Kodagu and Mysore District. Kannada is the local language around the National park Nagarahole Park is declared as thirty seventh Tiger Reserve in India. It is also considered as World Heritage site by UNESCO. Three of the park namely Bandipur, Mudumalai & Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary are adjacent to the Nagarahole.

3) Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve, the Gateway to Eastern Ghats, is a significant ecosystem and a wildlife corridor in the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve between the Western Ghats and the rest of the Eastern Ghats and a genetic link between the five other protected areas which it adjoins, including the Billigiriranga Swamy Temple Wildlife Sanctuary, Sigur Plateau, Mudumalai National Park, Bandipur National Park and the Cauvery Wildlife Sanctuary.

4) Established in 1973, the sanctuary is now an integral part of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve. It is bounded by protected area network of Nagarhole and Bandipur of Karnataka in the northeast, and on the southeast by Mudumalai of Tamil Nadu.

With reference to India's biodiversity, Ceylon frogmouth, Coppersmith barbet, Gray-Chinned minivet and White-throated redstarts are:

All of them are birds and all are the migratory species.

Also, Coppersmith barbet is the official bird of Mumbai city.It was declared in 2017 and was in news that year. Also, all of the mentioned are migratory birds.

Which of the following protected areas is well-known for the conservation of a sub-species of the Indian Swamp Dear (Barasingha) that thrives well on hard-ground and is exclusively graminivorous?

The species was in news when it was found that the sub-species of Swamp Deer is on revival after it was in near extiction situation in India. Its revival was spotted in Kanha National Park. It is also a state animal of Madhya Pradesh. This year numbers of these deers increased to 80 from 33 in 2016.

Various conservation methods were used, including habitat improvement and captive breeding, and today there’s an estimated 450 Barasingha in Kanha. Today, you can see herds of 10 to 20 strong roaming the fields and meadows of this large and beautiful national park and tiger reserve. The Barasingha is a Kanha success story, which the park celebrated in 2017 by becoming the first tiger reserve in India to officially introduce a mascot: Boorsingh the Barasingha.

Steel slag can be the material for which of the following?

1. Construction of base road
2. Improvement of agricultural soil
3. Production of cement

Steel slag is a bi-product of steel manufacturing industries. These are obtained after removing impurities from steel. These can be used in multiple ways. Steel slags can be used in several activities, such as construction and paving, and also in the agricultural sector due to its ability to correct soil acidity, as it contains some nutrients for the plants and also as silicate fertilizer that is capable of providing silicon to the plants. Thus, steel slags can be considered as a sustainable alternative to agricultural practice.

Steel slag is also used for construction of roads and cement manufacturing.

Therefore statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct.

Which of the following are the most likely places to find the musk deer in its natural habitat?

1. Askot Wildlife Sanctuary
2. Gangotri National Park
3. Kishanpur Wildlife Sanctuary
4. Manas National Park

Musk Deer is found in alpine environment, barren plateaus at high altitudes meadows. Therefore in India, western Himalaya (since they are at significant height) and Ladakh's surrounding region like Lahaul, Leh, musk deers can be found.

Out of the given locations, only Askot Wildlife Sanctuary and Gangotri National Park qualify for the given conditions. Both the places are in Uttarakhand. Askot WS is in Pithauragarh District and Gangotri is in Uttarkashi district.

Kishanpur Wildlife Sanctuary is a part of Dudhwa Tiger Reserve in Uttar Pradesh and Manas National Park is in Assam (in Eastern Himalayas, where altitude is not high enough for musk deers).

Musk Deers are poached for their musk gland which are used in premium perfumes.

In rural road construction, the use of which of the following is preferred for ensuring environmental sustainability or to reduce carbon footprint?

1. Copper Slag
2. Cold mix asphalt technology
3. Geotextiles
4. Hot mix asphalt technology
5. Portland cement

Asphalt is generally required to construct sustainable roads. But the question mentioned environment friendly method. Hot mixed asphalt require heating crude oil with asphalt cement. Due to this carbon emission increases. Therefore option 4 can be eliminated, with this Options B and C can be eliminated.

Cold mix asphalt is an environment friendly option. In this technology, asphalt for road construction can be made without any heating. Neither does it require any heavy investment. Therefore statement 2 is correct.

In the process of construction of rural roadways in India, several industrial wastes are used. Some of them are - fly ash, steel slag, copper slag, marble slurry dust waste, etc. Thus statement 1 is correct.

Statement 3 is correct : Geotextiles, especially jute geotextiles, are used in the construction of roadways. These are not only environment friendly but also provides strength to road.

Though Portland cement is a sustainable material as it provides strength to roads but its manufacturing requires lot of Carbon Dioxide emission. Therefore statement 5 is incorrect.

Consider the following statements. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Coal ash contains arsenic, lead and mercury
2. Coal-fired power plants release sulphur dioxide and oxides of nitrogen into the environment
3. High ash content is observed in Indian coal

Statements 1 and 2 are correct. India is heavily dependent on coal powered power generation. In the process, carbon monoxides, oxides of sulphur and oxides of nitrogen are emitted. Even after the emission, the bi-products are obtained in form coal ash. Coal ash contains many toxic minerals like arsenic, lead and mercury.

Statement 3 is also correct. Coal in India contains many grades. Most abundantly used is anthracite. Coal deposits found in India contain high ash content.

What is the use of biochar in farming ?

Which of the statements given below is/are correct?

1. Biochar can be used as a part of the growing medium in vertical farming.
2. When biochar is a part of the growing medium, it promotes the growth of nitrogen-fixing microorganisms.
3. When biochar is a part of the growing medium, it enables the growing medium to retain water for a longer time.

Biochar is a charcoal-like substance that's made by burning organic material from agricultural and forestry wastes (also called biomass) in a controlled process called pyrolysis. Although it looks a lot like common charcoal, biochar is produced using a specific process to reduce contamination and safely store carbon.

Biochar holds potential for long-term carbon sequestration, improving soil health and water-holding capacity, and further reducing emissions of greenhouse gases associated with fertiliser application. Adding biochar to soil not only provides a way to sequester carbon, but also has many soil health benefits which will help farmers adapt to climate change and increase productivity.

Biochar has the potential to boost the natural ability of legumes to fix nitrogen to the soil.

Adding biochar to the substrate at 7% (by weight) can be a way to improve the quality of water downstream water by reducing nitrogen, phosphorus, organic carbon concentrations and thus reducing turbidity in runoff… A promising solution for the urban green rooftop. The usage of biochar can be also interesting for the urban farming industry. In fact, green roofs are seen as “privileged areas” for retaining rainwater and reducing the effects of urban heat islands.

If a particular plant species is placed under Schedule VI of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972, what is the implication?

There are six schedules under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972. The specified endemic plants in Schedule VI are prohibited from cultivation and planting. The hunting to the Enforcement authorities has the power to compound offences under this Schedule (i.e. they impose fines on the offenders). 

The wildlife Protection Act defines "specified plant" as any plant specified in Schedule VI. It further states that "Cultivation of specified plants without license prohibited.

(1) no person shall cultivate a specified plant except under, and in accordance with a license granted by the Chief Wildlife Warden or any other officer authorized by the State Government in this behalf; 

2) Every licence granted under this section shall specify the area in which and the conditions if any, subject to which the licensee shall cultivate a specified plant.

With reference to the period of the Gupta dynasty in ancient India, the towns Ghantasala, Kadura and Chaul were well known as:

All three mentioned cities were port cities which handled international trade. During the Gupta era, the ports of the east coast, Tamralipti, Ghantashala, and Kadura handled the north-Indian trade with south-east Asia, and those of the west coast, Broach, Chaul, Kalyan and Cambray, traded with the Mediterranean and west Asia but the more southerly of these ports were outside Gupta control.

What is/are the advantages of zero tillage in agriculture?

1. Sowing of wheat is possible without burning the residue of the previous crop.
2. Without the need for nursery of rice saplings, direct planting of paddy seeds in the wet soil is possible.
3. Carbon sequestration in the soil is possible.

Tillage is the process of preparing the land for next cycle of crop cultivation. In zero tillage method, no land preparation method takes place. As a result, no crop residue is burnt and land is given proper time to restore its nutrients. In the process, crops are planted without removing residue of other crops. This helps in carbon sequestration, prevent soil erosion, reduce cost of agriculture and also reduces sowing period. In this method, seeds/sapling are drilled into the soil which contains crop residue. The remaining crop residue in the soil provides organic content to the soil as a result it yields better productivity. When wheat seeds are sown in soil using happy seeder, the rice stalks act as mulch.

According to India's Naitonal Policy on Biofuels, which of the following can be used as raw materials for production of biofuels?

1. Cassava
2. Damaged wheat grains
3. Groundnut seeds
4. Horse gram
5. Rotten potatoes
6. Sugar beet

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

In 2018, the Union Cabinet gave approval to the National Policy on biofuels. Under this policy, biofuels were categorised into 1G, 2G, and 3G fuels. Accordingly, raw materials were required for different generations of biofuels. Earlier, biofuel production was confined more or less to ethanol, but the new policy expands the scope of raw material for ethanol production by allowing use of Sugarcane Juice, Sugar containing materials likeSugar Beet, Sweet Sorghum, Starch containing materials like Corn, Cassava, Damaged food grains like wheat, broken rice, Rotten Potatoes,unfit for human consumption for ethanol production.

Which of the following statements best describe the term 'Social Cost of Carbon'?

An article was published on 'global social cost of carbon'. The Social Cost of Carbon is usually estimated as the net present value of climate change impacts over the next 100 years (or longer) of one additional tonne of carbon emitted to the atmosphere today. It is the marginal global damage costs of carbon emissions. Therefore Option A is the correct answer.

With reference to pulse production in Indian, consider the following statements. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Black gram can be cultivated as both Kharif and rabi crop
2. Green-gram alone accounts for nearly half of pulse production
3. In the last three decades, while the production of Kharif pulses has increased, the production of rabi pulses has decreased.

Statement 1 is correct : Like most of the pulses in India, Black gram pulse too can be cultivated both in kharif as well as in rabi season in India.

Statement 2 is incorrect : Chickpea pulse, also known as Chana, are the major pulse produced in India. It contributes more than 48% of the total pulse production in India.

Since statement 1 is correct and 2 is incorrect, statement 3 is also incorrect through elimination.

Statement 3 is incorrect : Overall trend of area, production and yield of last three plan periods have shown increasing trend in production and productivity of Kharif Pulses.

Overall trend of area, production and yield of last three plan periods have shown increasing trend in area however, production and productivity of Rabi Pulses declined during XIth plan period from Xth plan period and significantly increased during XIIth plan period.

"The crop is subtropical in nature. A hard frost is injurious to it. It requires at least 210 frost-free days and 50 to 100 centimeters of rainfall for its growth. A light well-drained soil capable of retaining moisture is ideally suited for the cultivation of the crop". Which one of the following is that crop?

India is believed to be the original home of the cotton plant. Cotton is one of the main raw materials for cotton textile industry. In 2008 India was second largest producer of cotton after China. Cotton grows well in drier parts of the black cotton soil of the Deccan plateau. It requires high temperature, light rainfall or irrigation, 210 frost-free days and bright sun-shine for its growth. It is a kharif crop and requires 6 to 8 months to mature. Major cotton-producing states are– Maharashtra, Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, Telangana, Tamil Nadu, Punjab, Haryana and Uttar Pradesh.

With reference to solar water pumps, consider the following statements :

1. Solar power can be used for running surface pumps and not for submersible pumps.
2. Solar power can be used for running centrifugal pumps and not the ones with piston.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

Solar pumps present a clean, simple and energy-efficient alternative to traditional electric and fuel-driven pump sets. They are part of an environmentally friendly approach in agriculture and can be used to exploit every region, whether it's developed or poor. The main components in a solar pumping system include a photovoltaic (PV) array, an electric motor and a pump. Solar water pumping systems, on the other hand, are classified as either direct current (DC) or alternating current (AC) systems based on they're motor’s ability. Recently, the concept of brushless DC (BLDC) motors for solar pumping water applications was presented as well.

When it comes to stand-alone solar pumping systems, the main types include rotating and positive displacement pumps. Centrifugal pumps are the common choice for rotation and are designed for fixed head applications. There output increases in proportion to there speed of rotation. Additionally, pumps are also classified as submersible and surface pumps, based on they're placement (underwater and above the waterline). Therefore both the statements are incorrect.

With reference to the current trends in the cultivation of sugarcane in India, consider the following statements :

1. A substantial saving in seed material is made when ‘bud chip settlings’ are raised in a nursery and transplanted in the main field.

2. When direct planting of setts is done, the germination percentage is better' with single-budded setts as compared to setts with many buds.

3. If bad weather conditions prevail when setts are directly planted, single-budded setts have better survival as compared to large setts.

4. Sugarcane can be cultivated using settlings prepared from tissue culture.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

Two andthreebudded settsareideal for optimum germination compared to larger seed pieces (Ali, 1990; Yadav, 1991). One budded set might give good germination underideal condition,butare morevulnerable to environmentalstresses. Primary shoots developed from two or three budded setts are more vigorous than from one budded set. There is experimental evidence to show that three budded setts gave 16% higher yield than single bud setts (Kakde, 1985).

The settlingsdevelopedthroughtissue culture or from bud chip or small sett, with bud and complete root-band, could be viable and economical optionforsugarcaneplanting.Lal et al. (2014) concluded that tissue culture techniques could be beneficially utilized for rapid multiplication of sugarcane after resolving the problems of thin canes in tissue culture raised crops, high cost of production and soma-clonal variation.

References:
(1) https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/economy/agri-business/bud-chip-technology-catching-on-among-sugarcane-farmers/article30502981.ece

(2) http://www.agsri.com/images/documents/symposium_1/Pdf%20files%20of%20PPTs/Technical%20Session%20I/Bud%20chip%20nurseries_IISR.pdf

(3) https://www.researchgate.net/publication/322976767_SUGARCANE_PLANTING_TECHNIQUES_A_REVIEW#

In the context of India, which of the following is/are considered to be practice(s) of eco-friendly agriculture ?

1. Crop diversification

2. Legume intensification

3. Tensiometer use

4. Vertical farming

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

1. Crop diversification refers to the addition of new crops or cropping systems to agricultural production on a particular farm taking into account the different returns from value- added crops with complementary marketing opportunities. Major advantages of crop diversification include income increases of small farm holdings; less risk for price fluctuation, climatic variability etc.; balancing food demand; increasing the production of quality fodder for livestock animals; beneficial for conserving natural resources; minimize environmental pollution; reduce dependence on offfarm inputs; and community food security can be increased.
2. Legumes fix the atmospheric nitrogen, release in the soil high-quality organic matter and facilitate soil nutrients' circulation and water retention. Based on these multiple functions, legume crops have high potential for conservation agriculture, being functional either as growing crop or as crop residue.
3. A tensiometer in soil science is a measuring instrument used to determine the matric water potential (soil moisture tension) in the unsaturated zone. The tensiometer is buried in the soil, and a hand pump is used to pull a partial vacuum. As water is pulled out of the soil by plants and evaporation, the vacuum inside the tube increases. When the soil is wetted flow can also occur in the reverse direction: as water is added to the soil, the vacuum inside the tube pulls moisture from the soil and decreases. When the water pressure in the tensiometer is determined to be in equilibrium with the water pressure in the soil, the tensiometer gauge reading represents the matric potential of the soil. Such tensiometers are used in irrigation scheduling to help farmers and other irrigation managers to determine when to water. In conjunction with a water retention curve, tensiometers can be used to determine how much to water. With practice, a tensiometer can be a useful tool for these purposes. Soil tensiometers can also be used in the scientific study of soils and plants.
4. Advantages of Vertical Farming:

• --> Year-round crop production.
• --> Eliminates agricultural runoff.
• --> Significantly reduces use of fossil fuels (farm machines and transport of crops)
• --> Makes use of abandoned or unused properties.
• --> No weather related crop failures.
• --> Offers the possibility of sustainability for urban centers.

What are the advantages of fertigation in agriculture ?

1. Controlling the alkalinity of irrigation water is possible.
2. Efficient application of Rock Phosphate and all other phosphatic fertilizers is possible.
3. Increased availability of nutrients to plants is possible.
4. Reduction in the leaching of chemical nutrients is possible.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

Advantageous of fertigation:

• Improves efficiency of fertilizer use
• Increases nutrient availability
• Saves 20-40% fertilizer without affecting growth and yield
• Saves laboures and energy in application of fertilizer
• Reduce environmental contamination
• Reduces leaching of nutrients
• Ability to control pH.The pH in the fert-irrigation solutions, both in soil culture and in hydroponics, must be such that it allows to be dissolved in all the nutrients without damaging the roots, This way avoiding the formation of precipitates that could cause clogging in the irrigation systems and unavailability for the root absorption of said nutrients. The ideal pH range is between 5.0 and 6.5, since practically all of the nutrients are assimilable by the plant. Above pH 6.5 the formation of precipitates can cause important problems. Below pH5, the root system may deteriorate, especially in hydroponic crops.

Disadvantages of fertigation

1. Uneven nutrient distribution occurs when the irrigation system is faulty. It leads to over fertilization or leaching of nutrients when excess water is applied to crops.
2. Chemical reactions of fertilizer with calcium and magnesium, bicarbonates in water, which can lead to chemical clogging.
3. Suitable for readily soluble or liquid fertilizers. Phosphatic fertilizer and some micronutrients may precipitate in micro-irrigation system. Hence statement 2 is incorrect
4. Corrosion resistant fertigation equipments are needed.
5. Potential chemical backflow into the water supply source.

Consider the following minerals :

1. Bentonite

2. Chromite

3. Kyanite

4. Sillimanite

In India, which of the above is/are officially designated as major minerals ?

For calculating the value of output, the mining and quarrying sector is divided into two broad groups viz., Major Minerals and Minor Minerals. The major minerals cover fuel minerals consisting of coal, lignite, petroleum and natural gas and other major minerals i.e. metallic minerals including atomic minerals and non-metallic minerals. 

1. Bentonite - Minor Mineral
2. Chromite - Metallic Major Mineral
3. Kyanite - Non-Metallic Major Mineral
4. Sillimanite - Non-Metallic Major Mineral

With reference to Ocean Mean Temperature (OMT), which of the following statements is/are correct ?

1, OMT is measured up to a depth of 26°C isotherm which is 129 meters in the south-western Indian Ocean during January - March.

2. OMT collected during January - March can be used in assessing whether the amount of rainfall in monsoon will be less or more than a certain long-term mean.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Sea surface temperature (SST) is routinely used for predicting whether the total amount of rainfall that India receives during the monsoon season will be less or more than the long-term mean of 887.5 mm. Now, scientists from Pune’s Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology (IITM) find that ocean mean temperature (OMT) has better ability to predict this than the sea surface temperature. Compared with SST that has 60% success rate of predicting summer monsoon, OMT has 80% success rate.

The SST is restricted to a few millimetres of the top ocean layer and is largely influenced by strong winds, evaporation, or thick clouds. In contrast, OMT, which is measured up to a depth of 26 degree C isotherm, is more stable and consistent, and the spatial spread is also less.The 26 degree C isotherm is seen at depths varying from 50-100 metres. During January-March, the mean 26 degree C isotherm depth in the Southwestern Indian Ocean is 59 metres.Thus statement 1 is incorrect

In addition to better predictive success, the information on whether the amount of monsoon rainfall will be more or less than the long-term mean will be available by beginning of April, two months before the south-west monsoon can set. This is becauseOMT is analysed by measuring the ocean thermal energy during the period January to March. South-westmonsoon sets in Kerala around June 1 each year.Thus statement 2 is correct

With reference to chemical fertilizers in India, consider the following statements :

1. At present, the retail price of chemical fertilizers is market-driven and not administered by the Government.

2. Ammonia, which is an input of urea, is produced from natural gas.

3. Sulphur, which is a raw material for phosphoric acid fertilizer, is a by-product of oil refineries.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

1. As fertilizer is an essential input for agricultural production, the Government’s objective is to make this critical input available to the farmers at affordable prices. Until 24^th August 1992, the prices of all the fertilizers were controlled, the Government setting the maximum retail prices of various fertilizers. With effect from 25August 1992, the prices of phosphate and potash fertilizers were decontrolled. The prices of urea continued to remain under control. Following decontrol, the prices of phosphatic and potassic fertilizers rose sharply. Since 1997/98 the Government has fixed indicative maximum retail prices of decontrolled fertilizers, uniform throughout the country. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.(Refernce : http://www.fao.org/3/a0257e/A0257E06.htm)


2. Statement 2 is correct :Synthetic ammonia (NH3) refers to ammonia that has been synthesized (Standard Industrial Classification 2873) from natural gas. Natural gas molecules are reduced to carbon and hydrogen. The hydrogen is then purified and reacted with nitrogen to produce ammonia. Approximately 75 percent of the ammonia produced is used as fertilizer, either directly as ammonia or indirectly after synthesis as urea, ammonium nitrate, and monoammonium or diammonium phosphates. The remainder is used as raw material in the manufacture of polymeric resins, explosives, nitric acid, and other products. (Refernce : https://www3.epa.gov/ttnchie1/ap42/ch08/final/c08s01.pdf)


3. Statement 3 is correct : Most crude oil grades contain some sulfur, most of which must be removed during the refining process to meet strict sulfur content limits in refined products. This is typically done through hydrotreating and results in production of H2S gas, which is converted into elemental sulfur in the sulfur recovery unit. The resultant elemental sulfur is in a molten state and can either be sold as a heated liquid or (more commonly) converted to solid form as blocks or pellets. Most of the sulfur produced by refineries is sold into the petrochemicals market where it is used to make sulfuric acid. Processing of high-sulfur natural gas is also a large source of sulfur supply. Sulfur can also be mined from underground, naturally-occurring deposits, but this is more costly than sourcing from oil and gas and has largely been discontinued.

Phosphate fertilizers are produced by adding acid to ground or pulverized phosphate rock. If sulfuric acid is used, single or normal, phosphate (SSP) is produced, with a phosphorus content of 16–21% as phosphorous pentoxide (P2O5).

With reference to India’s Desert National Park, which of the following statements are correct ?

1. It is spread over two districts.
2. There is no human habitation inside the Park.
3. It is one of the natural habitats of Great Indian Bustard.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

1. Statement 1 is correct :The Thar Desert in north-western India is a unique and the only habitat of its type in the Indian subcontinent. The Aravalli hills mark the eastern-most boundary limit of the Thar desert while the western limit is defined by the fertile plains of the Indus. The Great Rann of Kutch forms a sharp boundary in the south while its northern limits are formed by the riparian sub-Himalayan plains. The Desert National Park (DNP) covers an area of 3162 km² of which 1900 km² is in Jaisalmer district and remaining 1262 km² is in Barmer district of Rajasthan State. The area falls in the extreme hot and arid region of very low rainfall zone (<100mm) of the country. DNP was gazetted in the year 1980.


2. Statement 2 is incorrect :The Thar desert is the most thickly populated desert in the world with an average density of 83 persons/km² (compared to 7km² of other deserts) (Baqri and Kankane 2001). However, the human population within the DNP is low (4-5 persons per km²). There are 73 villages and also settlements or Dhanis existing within the Park. These communities have inhabited this area for hundreds of years and with their rich culture and tradition they are an integral part of this ecosystem.


3. Statement 3 is correct :More than 100 bird species have been listed from DNP including a good population of the Great Indian Bustard (locally called Godawan) (Kalra et al. 2006) and is a home for migrant Houbara Bustard. The important mammal species of the area includes Chinkara Gazella bennetti, Desert Fox Vulpes vulpes, Indian Fox Vulpes bengalensis, Desert Cat Felis silvestris, Hairy-footed Gerbil Gerbillus gleadowi, Desert hare Lepus nigrricollis dayanus and Long-eared hedgehog Hemeichinus auritus.

Siachen Glacier is situated to the

The Siachen Glacier is a glacier located in the eastern Karakoram range, North of Nubra Valley, in the Himalayas, just northeast of the point NJ9842 where the Line of Control between India and Pakistan ends. At 76 km (47 mi) long, it is the longest glacier in the Karakoram and second-longest in the world's non-polar areas. It falls from an altitude of 5,753 m (18,875 ft) above sea level at its head at Indira Col on the China border down to 3,620 m (11,875 ft) at its terminus. The entire Siachen Glacier, with all major passes, has been under the administration of India (currently as part of the union territory of Ladakh, located in the Kashmir region) since 1984. Pakistan maintains a territorial claim over the Siachen Glacier and controls the region west of Saltoro Ridge, lying west of the glacier, with Pakistani posts located 3,000 ft below more than 100 Indian posts on the ridge. It is the source for the 50-mi-long Nubra River, a tributary of the Shyok, which is part of the Indus River system.

With reference to the history of India, consider the following pairs :

Famous Place — Present State

1, Bhilsa — Madhya Pradesh

2. Dwarasamudra — Maharashtra

3. Girinagar — Gujarat

4, Sthanesvara — Uttar Pradesh

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched ?

1. Option 1 is correct :Vidisha, formerly known as Bhelsa and known as Besnagar in ancient times, is a city in the state of Madhya Pradesh, India. It is located 62.5 km northeast of the state capital, Bhopal. The name "Vidisha" is derived from the nearby river "Bais", mentioned in the Puranas. The district was created as "Bhilsa District" in 1904 by joining the tehsils of Vidisha (also known as Bhilsa) and Basoda, but not Basoda State, which were then part of Gwalior state. After India's independence in 1947, the former princely state of Gwalior became part of Madhya Bharat state, which was formed in 1948. Vidishā was the administrative headquarters of Bhelsa, or Bhilsa, during the Medieval period. It was renamed Vidisha in 1956.
2. Option 2 is incorrect :Halebidu (literally "old capital, encampment") is a town located inHassan District, Karnataka, India. Halebidu (which used to be called Dorasamudra or Dwarasamudra) was the regal capital of the Hoysala Empire in the 12th century. It is home to some of the best examples of Hoysala architecture. Most notable are the ornate Hoysaleshwara and Kedareshwara temples. The city got the name "Halebidu" because it was damaged and deserted into "old capital" after being ransacked and looted twice by forces of the Delhi Sultanate in the 14th century.
3. Option 3 is correct :Girinar is one of the most ancient Datta kshetras in India. Lord Dattatreya performed penance at the top of the hill. People have to climb 10,000 (ten thousand) steps to have Datta paduka darshan. The group temples of Jainism are also situated on the Mount Girnar situated near Junagadh in Junagadh district, Gujarat, India. There temples are sacred to the Digambara and the Svetambara branches of Jainism. Girnar, also known as Girinagar ('city-on-the-hill') or Revatak Parvata, is a group of mountains in the Junagadh District of Gujarat, India.
4. Option 4 is incorrect :Thanesar (sometimes called Thaneswar and, archaically, Sthanishvara) is a historic town and an important Hindu pilgrimage centre on the banks of the Saraswati River in the state of Haryana in northern India. It is located in Kurukshetra district, approximately 160 km northwest of Delhi, and Kurukshetra’s urban area now merges with Thanesar. Prabhakarvardhana was a ruler of Thanesar in the early seventh-century CE and was succeeded by his sons, Rajyavardhana and Harsha

Consider the following statements :

1. 36% of India’s districts are classified as "overexploited” or “critical” by the Central Ground Water Authority (CGWA).

2. CGWA was formed under the Environment (Protection) Act.

3. India has the largest area under groundwater irrigation in the world.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

1. The degree of ground water exploitation has varied widely across the country. Some states have a large number of semi critical, critical and over-exploited assessment units (Annexure 2.3).4 Out of the 5723 assessment units assessed jointly by State Ground Water Departments and CGWB in the country, 4078 are safe (71%), 550 are semi critical (10%), 226 are critical (4%) and 839 are overexploited (15%). Just six states [Gujarat, Haryana, Maharashtra, Punjab, Rajasthan and Tamil Nadu] comprising 1413 assessment units, have 762 assessment units which are semi critical, critical or overexploited (54% against national average of 29%).
2. Central Ground Water Authority has been constituted under Section 3 (3) of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 to regulate and control development and management of ground water resources in the country.
3. Today, India is the world’s largest user of groundwater, accounting for almost 25% of the approximate 1000 km³ of groundwater that is extracted annually in the world. India also has the largest number of wells and tube wells, and the latest round of Minor Irrigation Census puts this number at approximately 20 million.

Consider the following statements :

1. Jet streams occur in the Northern Hemisphere only.
2. Only some cyclones develop an eye.
3. The temperature inside the eye of a cyclone is nearly 10°C lesser than that of the surroundings.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

1. Statement 1 is incorrect:Jet streams are relatively narrow bands of strong wind in the upper levels of the atmosphere. The winds blow from west to east in jet streams but the flow often shifts to the north and south. Jet streams follow the boundaries between hot and cold air. Since these hot and cold air boundaries are most pronounced in winter, jet streams are the strongest for both the northern and southern hemisphere winters.
2. Statement 2 is correct:The eye is a region of mostlycalm weather at the centerof strong tropical cyclones. The eye of a storm is a roughly circular area, typically 30–65 kilometers (19–40 miles) in diameter. It is surrounded by the eyewall, a ring of towering thunderstorms where the most severe weather and highest winds occur.In a temperate cyclone,there is not a single place where winds and rains are inactive, means no eye, where weather is calm.
3. Statement 3 is incorrect:The eye is the region of lowest surface pressure and warmest temperatures aloft - the eye temperature may be 10°C [18°F] warmer or more at an altitude of 12 km [8 mi] than the surrounding environment, but only 0-2°C [0-3°F] warmer at the surface (Hawkins and Rubsam 1968) in the tropical cyclone. Eyes range in size from 8 km [5 mi] to over 200 km [120 mi] across, but most are in the range 30-60 km [20-40 mi] in diameter (Weatherford and Gray 1988).

Among the following Tiger Reserves, which one has the largest area under “Critical Tiger Habitat” ?

Critical 'tiger' habitats (CTHs), also known as core areas of tiger reserves—are identified under the Wild Life Protection Act (WLPA), 1972 based on scientific evidence that "such areas are required to be kept as inviolate for the purpose of tiger conservation, without affecting the rights of the Scheduled Tribes or such other forest dwellers". The notification of CTH is done by the state government in consultation with the expert committee constituted for the purpose.

‘Inviolate’ is a general term used to indicate no human settlement and usage. This inevitably implies that establishing CTHs as inviolate areas requires relocation of people living in such areas. The Section 38V (5) of WLPA, 1972 clearly states: "…no Scheduled Tribes or other forest dwellers shall be resettled or have their rights adversely affected for the purpose of creating inviolate areas for tiger conservation unless the process of recognition and determination of rights and acquisition of land or forest rights of the Scheduled Tribes and such other forest dwelling persons is complete".