UPSC Prelims 2019 Solutions

With reference to the Legislative Assembly of a State in India, consider the following statements: Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Article 176(1) of the Constitution of India enjoins that the Governor shall address both the Houses assembled together at the commencement of the first Session after each general election to the Assembly and at the commencement of the first session of each year and inform the Legislature of the causes of its Summons. The Address of the Governor contains a review of the activities and achievements of the Government during the previous year and their policy with regard to important internal problems as well as a brief account of the programme of Government Business for the session.

State Legislature functions on the basis of the rules and procedures and conventions. In the event of any development for which there is neither any precedence or convention nor there is any rule then the Speaker can follow the procedure followed in Lok Sabha. However, later on, the assembly can itself come up with a rule or a convention.

Consider the following statements: Which of the statements given below is/ are correct?

1. The motion to impeach a Judge of the Supreme Court of India cannot be rejected by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha as per the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
2. The Constitution of India defines and gives details of what constitutes 'incapacity and proved misbehaviour' of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India.
3. The details of the process of impeachment of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India are given in the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
4. If the motion for the impeachment of a Judge is taken up for voting, the law requires the motion to be backed by each House of the Parliament and supported by a majority of the total membership of that House and by not less than two-thirds of total members of that House present and voting.

Statement 1 is incorrect - The motion to impeach a Judge of the Supreme Court of India can be rejected by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha as per the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.

Statement 2 is incorrect and statement 3 is correct - The Constitution of India does not define and gives details of the term 'incapacity and proved misbehaviour' of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India, which are the criteria for the impeachment of the Judges. The details of the process of impeachment of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India are given in the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.

Statement 4 is correct - If the motion for the impeachment of a Judge is taken up for voting, the law requires the motion to be backed by each House of Parliament and supported by a majority of total membership of that House and by not less than two-thirds of total members of that House present and voting.

Consider the following statements: Which of the statements given below is/ are correct?

1. The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts several posts from disqualification on the grounds of 'Office of Profit'.
2. The above-mentioned Act was amended five times.
3. The term 'Office of Profit' is well-defined in the Constitution of India.

Statements 1 and 2 are correct - Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 declares that certain offices of profit under the Government shall not disqualify the holders thereof for being chosen as (or for being) members of Parliament. This Act repealed the three earlier Acts, namely, the Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1950; the Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification Act, 1951; and the Prevention of Disqualification (Parliament and Part C States Legislatures) Act, 1953).

Statement 3 is incorrect - The office of profit is not defined in the constitution. Rather, its meaning is ascertained through Supreme Court judgments and Election Commission Guidelines.

Which one of the following suggested that the Governor should be an eminent person from outside the State and should be a detached figure without intense political links or should not have taken part in politics in the recent past?

The first Central State relations commission, the Sarkaria Commission, voiced the independence and neutral role of the governor in the states. In this backdrop, it recommended that the appointment of the governor has to be democratic, which will lead to impartial functioning of the office.

Recommendations on Appointment of Governor:

• -He should be an eminent person;
• -He must be a person from outside the State;
• -He must not have participated in active politics at least for some time before his appointment;
• -He should be a detached person and not too intimately connected with the local politics of the State;
• -He should be appointed in consultation with the Chief Minister of State, Vice-President of India and the Speaker of the Lok Sabha;
• -His tenure of office must be guaranteed and should not be disturbed except for extremely compelling reasons, and if any action is to be taken against him he must be given a reasonable opportunity for showing cause against the grounds on which he is sought to be removed. In case of such termination or resignation of the Governor, the Government shall lay before both Houses of Parliament a statement explaining the circumstances leading to such removal or resignation, as the case may be;
• -After demitting his office, the person appointed as Governor should not be eligible for any other appointment or office of profit under the Union or a State Government except for a second term as Governor or elected as Vice-President or President of India, as the case may be; and
• -At the end of his tenure, reasonable post-retirement benefits should be provided.

With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following statements: Which of the statements given below is/are correct?

Judicial review is the power of a high court to examine the constitutionality of legislative enactments and executive orders of both the Central and state governments.On examination, if they are found to be violative of the Constitution (ultra-vires), they can be declared as illegal, unconstitutional and invalid (null and void) by the high court. Consequently, they cannot be enforced by the government. Though the phrase ‘judicial review’ has nowhere been used in the Constitution, the provisions of Articles 13 and 226 explicitly confer the power of judicial review on a high court. The constitutional validity of a legislative enactment or an executive order can be challenged in a high court on the following three grounds:

• It infringes the fundamental rights (Part III),
• it is outside the competence of the authority which has framed it, and
• It is repugnant to the constitutional provisions.

The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 curtailed the judicial review power of high court. It debarred the high courts from considering the constitutional validity of any central law. However, the 43rd Amendment Act of 1977 restored the original position.

Consider the following statements: Which of the statements given below are correct?

1. The United Nations Convention against Corruption (UNCAC) has a 'Protocol against the Smuggling of Migrants by Land, Sea and Air'.
2. The UNCAC is the ever-first legally binding global anti-corruption instrument.
3. A highlight of the United Nations Convention against Transnational Organized Crime (UNTOC) is the inclusion of a specific chapter aimed at returning assets to their rightful owners from whom they had been taken illicitly.
4. The United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) is mandated by its member States to assist in the implementation of both UNCAC and UNTOC.

Statement 1 is incorrect and statement 3 is correct - The first statement is incorrect as it is under the United Nations Convention against Transnational Organized Crime (UNTOC). The United Nations Convention against Corruption is the only legally binding universal anti-corruption instrument. The Convention UNTOC is supplemented by three Protocols, which target specific areas and manifestations of organized crime:

• The Protocol to Prevent, Suppress and Punish Trafficking in Persons, Especially Women and Children;
• The Protocol against the Smuggling of Migrants by Land, Sea and Air; and
• The Protocol against the Illicit Manufacturing and Trafficking of Firearms, their Parts and Components and Ammunition. Countries must become parties to the Convention itself before they can become parties to any of the Protocols.

Statement 2 is correct - Corruption is a global phenomenon and has also become a serious global concern. The United Nations Convention against Corruption was adopted by the UN General Assembly in October 2003, providing an international instrument against corruption. The United Nations Convention against Corruption is the only legally binding universal anti-corruption instrument.

Statement 4 is correct - UNODC is a resolution by the UN which is party to other UN resolutions related to transnational crimes, corruption, terrorism and criminal justice system.

With reference to the Constitution of India, prohibitions or limitations or provisions contained in ordinary laws cannot act as prohibitions or limitations on the constitutional powers under Article 142. It could mean which one of the following?

Article 142 - Enforcement of decrees and orders of the Supreme Court, unless as to discovery, etc. The Supreme Court in the exercise of its jurisdiction may pass such decree or make such order as is necessary for doing complete justice in any cause or matter pending before it, and any decree so passed or order so made shall be enforceable throughout the territory of India in such manner as may be prescribed by or under any law made by Parliament, and, until provision in that behalf is so made, in such manner as the President may by order prescribe. Subject to the provisions of any law made in this behalf by Parliament, the Supreme Court shall, as respects the whole of the territory of India, have all and every power to make any order for the purpose of securing the attendance of any person, the discovery or production of any documents, or the investigation or punishment of any contempt of itself.

Which Article of the Constitution of India safeguards one's right to marry the person of one's choice?

The right to marry is a part of the right to life under Article 21 of the Indian Constitution. Right to marriage is also stated under the Human Rights Charter within the meaning of the right to start a family. The right to marry is a universal right and it is available to everyone irrespective of their gender. Various courts across the country have also interpreted the right to marry as an integral part of the right to life under Article 21. The Supreme Court has reaffirmed this in the recent ruling in the Hadiya Case.

(https://www.scobserver.in/court-case/hadiya-marriage-case)

In India, which of the following review the independent regulators in sectors like telecommunications, insurance, electricity, etc? Select the correct answer using the code given below.

The Parliamentary committees are established to study and deal with various matters that cannot be directly handled by the legislature due to their volume. They also monitor the functioning of the executive branch. The Parliamentary committees are of two kinds - Standing or permanent committees and Ad hoc committees. The former are elected or appointed periodically and they work on a continuous basis. The latter are created on an ad hoc basis as the need arises and they are dissolved after they complete the task assigned to them. They are responsible to review the independent regulators in sectors like telecommunications, insurance, electricity, etc. (Note: the answer is more correctly derived by elimination as the last three have well known directives for functioning.)

In the context of polity, which one of the following would you accept as the most appropriate definition of liberty?

The term ‘liberty’ means the absence of restraints on the activities of individuals, and at the same time, providing opportunities for the development of individual personalities.

Meaning of liberty is absence of restraint in a way that a person can develop oneself fully. Even if there is absence of restraint and that translates to anarchy and no one is able to develop oneself to the best of the potential, then that absence of restraint is not amounting to liberty. Therefore, it is more important that there should be an environment to develop oneself fully, if liberty is to exist. Therefore Option D is the correct answer.

Under which Schedule of the Constitution of India can the transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining be declared null and void?

The purpose of Scheduled Areas, as also recognised in several judgments, is to preserve the tribal autonomy, their culture and economic empowerment, to ensure social, economic and political justice, and preservation of peace and good governance. It is with this object in mind that the Constitution created the Fifth Schedule, which has famously been called ―A Constitution within a Constitution. Thus to safeguard cultural autonomy and empower the tribal community in the fifth schedule, the constitution defines the power of the transfer of the tribal land to private parties for mining.

The Ninth Schedule was introduced in the Constitution of India during the prime ministership of ___.

The first amendment to the Indian Constitution added the Ninth Schedule to it. It was introduced by the Nehru Government on 10 May 1951 to address judicial decisions and pronouncements, especially during the chapter on fundamental rights. Nehru was also very clear on the purpose behind the first amendment. The state wanted to pursue nationalisation, take away lands from the zamindars, re-distribute them, and make special provisions for the socially and economically backward.

Consider the following statements: Which of the statements given below is/are correct?

Statement 1 is incorrect - The 44th amendment of the Indian Constitution was significant as it removed partially the distortions that were introduced into the Constitution by the 42nd Amendment Act. But it had no proposal of an article placing the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review.

Statement 2 is correct - A five-judge bench in the National Judicial Appointments Commission case, with a majority of 4:1 rejected the NJAC Act brought in by the 99th constitutional amendment by stating it as ― unconstitutional and void. Justice Khehar stated that the expectation from the judiciary, to safeguard the rights of the citizens of this country, can only be ensured, by keeping it absolutely insulated and independent, from the other organs of governance and the Proposed NJAC violated the Independence of the Judiciary.

With reference to the management of minor minerals in India, consider the following statements:

1. Sand is a 'minor mineral' according to the prevailing law in the country.
2. State Governments have the power to grant mining leases of minor minerals, but the powers regarding the formation of rules related to the grant of minor minerals lie with the Central Government.
3. State Governments have the power to frame rules to prevent illegal mining of minor minerals.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? [UPSC 2019]

Statement 1 is correct - Sand is a minor mineral, as defined under section 3(e) of the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 (MMDR Act).

Statement 2 is not correct - As per Section 15 of the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) (MMDR) Act, 1957, State Governments have been empowered to frame rules in respect of minor minerals for regulating the grant of quarry leases, mining leases or other mineral concessions in respect of minor minerals and for purposes connected therewith.

Statement 3 is correct - Section 23C of the MMDR Act, 1957 empowers state governments to frame rules to prevent illegal mining, transportation and storage of minerals and for purposes connected therewith. Control of illegal mining is, therefore, under the legislative and administrative jurisdiction of state governments.

Consider the following statements:

1. Some species of turtles are herbivores.
2. Some species of fish are herbivores.
3. Some species of marine mammals are herbivores.
4. Some species of snakes are viviparous.

Which of the statements given above are correct? [UPSC 2019]

Statement 1 is correct - Green sea turtles eat seagrasses and algae, though juveniles snack on crabs, sponges, and jellyfish. In the wild, they can live up to 80 years and grow up to five feet long. Once mature, it is the only sea turtle that is strictly herbivorous.

Statement 2 is correct - Parrotfish are algae eaters. They obtain the algae by ripping small chunks of coral from a reef. Many other herbivores thrive among the fish population. Other herbivores include the Japanese angelfish, yellow bloth rabbitfish, and tilapia.

Statement 3 is correct - The diet of Manatees consists of water grasses, weeds, and algae. Dugongs are related to manatees, which are both endangered and protected animals. These slow-moving herbivores graze on underwater grasses, rooting them out with bristled, sensitive snouts and chomping them with rough lips.

Statement 4 is correct - Snakes that are viviparous nourish their developing young through a placenta and yolk sac, something that is highly unusual among reptiles. Boa constrictors and green anacondas are two examples of viviparous snakes, meaning they give birth to live young with no eggs involved at any stage of development.

In the context of wearable technology, which of the following tasks is/are accomplished by wearable devices.

Select the correct answer using the code given below. [UPSC 2019]

Wearable technology is a category of electronic devices that can be worn as accessories, embedded in clothing, implanted in the user's body, or even tattooed on the skin. The devices are hands -free gadgets with practical uses, powered by microprocessors and enhanced with the ability to send and receive data via the Internet.

Location - and position - tracking sensors (i.e., GPS, altimeter, magnetometer, compasses, and accelerometers) are the most common type of sensors on wearable devices, such as activity trackers, smartwatches, and even medical wearables where they are used to check the physical activity and health of patients.

Fitness trackers, also known as activity trackers, are typically worn on the wrist, chest, or ears, and are designed to monitor and track outdoor sports activities and measure fitness-related metrics, such as the speed and distance of running, exhalation, pulse rate, and sleeping habits.

In more recent times, there has been a new surge in wearable technology worn on the ear, referred to as hearables. Hearing -Aids is a category of hearables involving the use of a microphone, speaker and amplifier. This amplifies sounds to help people with hearing impairment hear. Example, Phonak Audeo V.

Recently, scientists observed the merger of giant 'blackholes' billions of light-years away from the Earth. What is the significance of this observation? [UPSC 2019]

In the experiment it was observed that the two black holes that merged were massive: one hole was 31 times the mass of the sun, and the other was 25 solar masses. They twisted together to form a single spinning hole 53 times more massive than our star. The missing three suns' worth of mass became energy, expelled as gravitational waves. In the experiment, it was observed that gravitational wave detectors, detected signals from events involving objects other than black holes. Whereas black holes emit no electromagnetic radiation and are impossible to directly observe, other potential sources of gravitational waves — colliding neutron stars, supernovas, binary star mergers — can be seen through conventional telescopes.

The LIGO detectors discovered the first gravitational waves produced by two giant merging blackholes in 2016.

Consider the following statements: Which of the statements given below is/are correct? [UPSC 2019]

Statement 1 is correct - Purchasing power parity (PPP) is a method of calculating the correct/real value of a currency which may be different from the market exchange rate of the currency. Using this method economy may be studied comparatively in a common currency. This is a very popular method handy for the IMF and WB (introduced by them in 1990) in studying the living standards of people in different economies. In theory, the value of currencies in terms of their market exchange rate should converge with their value in terms of the PPP in the long run. But that might not happen due to many factors like the fluctuations in inflation; the level of money supply; follow-up to the exchange rate regimes (fixed, floating, etc.), and other.

For the calculation of the PPP, a comparable basket of goods and services is selected (a very difficult task) of the identical qualities and quantities. The other difficulty in computing PPP arises out of the flaw in the ‘one price theory’ i.e., due to transportation cost, local taxes, level of production, etc. The prices of goods and services cannot be the same in different markets (This is correct in theory only, not possible in practice.) 

On a PPP basis, China is the world's largest economy in 2018. The total wealth of china is estimated at 25.3 trillion international dollars. China is followed by the United States with figure 19.4 trillion. India is the third-largest economy, in terms of PPP dollars. Hence, Statement 2 is not correct.

[Ref: https://www.businesstoday.in/current/economy-politics/india-pips-japan-in-gdp-based-on-purchasing-power-parity/story/282226.html]

Present data as of June 2020 -India accounts for 6.7% or $8,051 billion, out of the world's total of $119,547 billion of global Gross Domestic Product (GDP) in terms of PPP compared to 16.4 % in case of China and 16.3 % for the US.

For the measurement/ estimation of which of the following are satellite images/remote sensing data used?

1. Chlorophyll content in the vegetation of a specific location.
2. Greenhouse gas emissions from rice paddies of a specific location.
3. Land surface temperatures of a specific location.

Select the correct answer using the code given below. [UPSC 2019]

With the development of remote sensing from space, satellite data offers the possibility for measuring land surface temperature over the entire globe with sufficiently high temporal resolution and with complete spatially averaged rather than point values.

The global food supply is being monitored with satellite imagery and the Normalized Difference Vegetation Index (NDVI). Near-infrared radiation is being used to detect healthy vegetation in agriculture. Healthy vegetation reflects green light and absorbs red and blue light. The green light that our eyes see is chlorophyll created by plants during photosynthesis. Chlorophyll will reflect more light in the green and near-infrared spectrum compared to other wavelengths. This is why near-infrared radiation in combination with NDVI is one of the primary remote sensing applications in agriculture and the environment.

Remote sensing from satellites can deliver information on GHG soil emissions by estimating tropospheric, near-surface CO₂ and CH₄ concentrations based on the measurement of the intensity of the reflected sunlight in small wavelength bands in the visible and short-wavelength IR portion of the spectrum.

On 21st June, the Sun _______________. [UPSC 2019]

On 21st June, the Sun is directly over Tropic of cancer. Geometrically, it means the Sun is normal (90*) to Tropic of Cancer and makes an angle of 47* to the Arctic Circle. As such, the Sun is above the horizon for all areas north of Arctic Circle. The entire area in the Arctic circle experiences day. The North Pole is inclined towards the sun and the places beyond the Arctic Circle experience continuous daylight for about six months. Since a large portion of the Northern Hemisphere is getting light from the sun, it is summer in the regions north of the equator. The longest day and the shortest night at these places occur on 21st June.

At this time in the Southern Hemisphere, all these conditions are reversed. It is winter season there. The nights are longer than the days. This position of the earth is called the Summer Solstice.

Why are dew-drops not formed on a cloudy night? [UPSC 2019]

Dew is not formed:

• on cloudy nights because cloudy nights are warmer than clear nights.
• in shady places because air cannot move there freely.
• on windy nights because wind carries away the moist air.

The atmosphere, heated by the absorption of Earth radiation, in turn, radiates heat back to the Earth's surface increasing the Earth's surface temperature.

When the moisture is deposited in the form of water droplets on cooler surfaces of solid objects (rather than nuclei in air above the surface) such as stones, grass blades and plant leaves, it is known as dew. The ideal conditions for its formation are the clear sky, calm air, high relative humidity, and cold and long nights. For the formation of dew, it is necessary that the dew point is above the freezing point.

The Chairmen of public sector banks are selected by the ____. [UPSC 2019]

The Chairman of public sector banks are selected by the Banks Board Bureau (BBB) and appointed by the Finance Ministry. On the recommendation of the BBB, the Appointment Committee of Cabinet takes the final decision.

Which of the following is issued by registered foreign portfolio investors to overseas investors who want to be part of the Indian stock market without registering themselves directly? [UPSC 2019]

A Participatory Note (PN or P-Note) is a derivative instrument issued in foreign jurisdictions, by a SEBI registered Foreign Institutional Investor (FII) or its sub-accounts or one of its associates, against underlying Indian securities. The underlying Indian security instrument may be equity, debt, derivatives or may even be an index.

A promissory note is a financial instrument that contains a written promise by one party to pay another party a definite sum of money, either on demand or at a specified future date.

Commercial Paper (CP) is an unsecured money market instrument issued in the form of a promissory note. CPs are short -term instruments and the maturity period varies from seven days to up to one year. It was introduced to enable highly rated corporate borrowers to diversify their sources of short -term borrowings, and also to provide an additional instrument to investors.

Certificate of Deposits -It is a saving certificate with a fixed maturity date at fixed interest rate. It is issued by commercial banks and financial institutions. It is issued in the form of promissory note in exchange of funds deposited in banks for specified period.

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Maternity Benefit Amendment Act, 2017?

1. Pregnant women are entitled to three months pre-delivery and three months post-delivery paid leave.
2. Enterprises with creches must allow the mother a minimum of six creche visits daily.
3. Women with two children get reduced entitlements.

Select the correct answer using the code given below. [UPSC 2019]

Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Act, 2017

• It provides for full paid absence from work for a period of 26 weeks (earlier 12 weeks) to take care of the child. Hence statement 1 is not correct.
• The Act is applicable to all establishments employing 10 or more women.
• For women who are expecting after having 2 children, the duration of paid maternity leave shall be 12 weeks. Hence statement 3 is correct.
• Maternity leave of 12 weeks to be available to mothers adopting a child below the age of three months from the date of adoption as well as to the “commissioning mothers”.
• The Act makes it mandatory for employers to educate women about the maternity benefits available to them at the time of their appointment.
• Any establishment which has 50 or more employees shall have the facility of the creche. Further, the proviso of Section 11A states that employer shall allow 4 visits a day to the creche by the woman employee. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

Which of the following adopted a law on data protection and privacy for its citizens known as 'General Data Protection Regulation' in April 2016 and started implementation of it from 25th May, 2018?

[UPSC 2019]

The General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR), agreed upon by the European Parliament and Council in April 2016, will replace the Data Protection Directive 95/46/ec in Spring 2018 as the primary law regulating how companies protect EU citizens' personal data. Companies that are already in compliance with the Directive must ensure that they are also compliant with the new requirements of the GDPR before it becomes effective on May 25, 2018. Companies that fail to achieve GDPR compliance before the deadline will be subject to stiff penalties and fines.

Consider the following statements:

1. Under Ramsar Convention, it is mandatory on the part of the Government of India to protect and conserve all the wetlands in the territory of India.
2. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 were framed by the Government of India based on the recommendation of the Ramsar Convention.
3. The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 also encompass the drainage area or catchment regions of the wetlands as determined by the authority.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? [UPSC 2019]

Statement 1 is not correct - Article 4 of the Ramsar Convention states that "Each Contracting Party shall promote the conservation of wetlands and waterfowl by establishing nature reserves on wetlands, whether they are included in the List or not, and provide adequately for their wandering." It is not mandatory on the part of the Government of India to protect and conserve all the wetlands in the territory of India.

Statement 2 is correct - Article 3 of the Ramsar Convention states that "The Contracting Parties shall formulate and implement their planning so as to promote the conservation of the wetlands included in the List, and as far as possible the wise use of wetlands in their territory."

Statement 3 is correct - As per Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010, a "wetland" means an area or of the marsh, fen, peatland or water; natural or artificial, permanent or temporary, with water that is static or flowing, fresh, brackish or salt, including areas of marine water, the depth of which at low tide does not exceed six metres and includes all inland waters such as lakes, reservoir, tanks, backwaters, lagoon, creeks, estuaries and manmade wetland and the zone of direct influence on wetlands that is to say the drainage area or catchment region of the wetlands as determined by the authority.

Consider the following statements: Which of the statements given below is/ are correct? [UPSC 2019]

As per the Government report on External debt by December 2018 - Commercial borrowings are the largest component of external debt with a share of 37.1 percent, followed by NRI deposits (23.9 percent) and short term trade credit (19.9 percent). Hence, Statement 1 is not correct.

US dollar denominated debt continued to be the largest component of India’s external debt with a share of 45.9 percent at end December 2018, followed by the Indian rupee (24.8 percent), SDR (5.1 percent), yen (4.9 percent) and euro(3.1 percent). Hence, Statement 2 is not correct.

The major details (upto September 2019) released by the RBI on December 31, 2019 (compared with March 2019) were as given below:

• Total external debt was at US$ 557.4 billion (a rise of US$ 47.0 billion). This rise was mainly caused by two reasons—firstly, an increase in commercial borrowings and non-resident Indian (NRI) deposits and secondly, valuation losses resulting from the appreciation of the US dollar against the Indian rupee and major currencies.
• The external debt to GDP ratio stood at 21 per cent (higher than 20.8 per cent of March 2019 (the ratio is based on external debt and GDP valued in rupee terms).
• Debt service ratio at 7.0 per cent (rising from 6.5 per cent). This means that India pays 7.0 per cent of its exports earnings to pay the external debt (inclusive of principal and interest).
• Commercial borrowings (i.e., ECBs) continued to be the largest component of external debt with a share of 39.1 per cent, followed by NRI deposits (24.0 per cent) and short term trade credit (20.1 per cent).
• US dollar denominated debt continued to be the largest component at 49.5 per cent, followed by the Indian rupee (37.2 per cent), SDR (5.6 per cent), Yen (4.3 per cent) and Euro (3.1 per cent).
• The share of long-term debt in total external debt was 79.6 per cent (falling from 80.7 per cent of March 2019).
• The share of short-term debt (with original maturity of up to one year) in total external debt increased to 20.4 per cent (falling from 19.3 per cent).
• Concessional debt of the total debt was 9 per cent (lower than 9.1 per cent).
• Government debt of the total debt was 21.2 per cent (down from 21.6 per cent).

What was the purpose of Inter-Creditor Agreement signed by Indian banks and financial institutions recently? [UPSC 2019]

The agreement, known as Inter-Creditor Agreement (ICA) was framed under the aegis of the Indian Banks‘ Association and follows the recommendations of the Sunil Mehta Committee on stressed asset resolution. ICA is an agreement among banks that have dues from a borrower in the stress.

Project Sashakt was proposed by a panel led by PNB chairman Sunil Mehta. Bad loans of up to Rs. 50 crore will be managed at the bank level, with a deadline of 90 days. For bad loans of Rs. 50-500 crore, banks will enter an Inter-Creditor Agreement, authorizing the lead bank to implement a resolution plan in 180 days, or refer the asset to NCLT.

Consider the following statements: The Reserve Bank of India's recent directives relating to 'Storage of Payment System Data', popularly known as data diktat, command the payment system providers that

1. they shall ensure that entire data relating to payment systems operated by them are stored in a system only in India.
2. they shall ensure that the systems are owned and operated by public sector enterprises.
3. they shall submit the consolidated system audit report to the Comptroller and Auditor General of India by the end of the calendar year.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? [UPSC 2019]

The Reserve Banks directive related to Storage of Payment System Data provides that:

1. All system providers shall ensure that the entire data relating to payment systems operated by them are stored in a system only in India. This data should include the full end-to-end transaction details/information collected/carried/processed as part of the message/payment instruction. For the foreign leg of the transaction, if any, the data can also be stored in a foreign country, if required.
2. System providers shall ensure compliance of (i) above within a period of six months and report compliance of the same to the Reserve Bank latest by October 15, 2018.
3. System providers shall submit the System Audit Report (SAR) on completion of the requirement at (i) above. The audit should be conducted by CERT-IN empanelled auditors certifying completion of activity at (i) above.
4. The SAR duly approved by the Board of the system providers should be submitted to the Reserve Bank not later than December 31, 2018. Hence, only statement 1 is correct

With reference to the Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB), consider the following statements:

Which of the statements given below is/are correct? [UPSC 2019]

Statement 1 is correct and statement 3 is not correct - It is a multilateral development bank with a mission to improve social and economic outcomes in Asia and beyond.

Statement 2 is not correct - India is the second-largest shareholder in AIIB with 7.5% voting shares, while China holds 26.06% voting shares being the largest.

The Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB) was officially launched in 2014 by China with 21 Asian nations as the founding members. By March 2019, the bank had a total of 93 members from across the world (inclusive of the 23 prospective members). Still, the USA, Japan and Canada have not joined it rather the experts suggested them to support it especially when the existing mechanism (the World Bank and Asian Development Bank) is not able to cater to the infrastructural needs of the continent.

India is one of the 21 founding members of the bank and is believed to benefit maximum from it. India holds 8.6794 per cent of its shares (with a total investment of US$ 8.3673 billion) and avails a 7.614 per cent voting rights (with a total of 86,214 shares) in it. India’s shareholding is the second highest after China which holds 30.8913 per cent shares. India is presently the largest borrower of the bank—for diverse projects it had borrowed a total of US$ 5.1 billion till March 2020 with many more infra projects in the pipeline of consideration for financial support. Unlike most other multilateral development banks set up by developed countries, AIIB is the first major multilateral development bank where principal contributors are the borrowing members themselves.

The Global Competitiveness Report is published by the ____. [UPSC 2019]

The Global Competitiveness Report is a yearly report published by the World Economic Forum. Since 2004. It ranks countries based on the Global Competitiveness Index.

[Ref : https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/economy/india-ranks-58th-most-competitive-economy-in-wef-index/article25244640.ece]

The World Economic Forum introduced the new Global Competitiveness Index 4.0 in 2018. GCI 4.0 provides a detailed map of the factors and attributes that drive productivity, growth and human development in the era of the Fourth Industrial Revolution. The GCI 4.0 covers 141 economies, which account for 99% of the world’s GDP.

The GCI 4.0 of 2019 reveal that, on average, most economies continue to be far from the competitiveness “frontier”—the aggregate ideal across all factors of competitiveness. A country’s performance on the overall GCI is reported as a ‘progress score’ on a 0-to-100 scale, where 100 represents the ‘frontier’, an ideal state where an issue ceases to be a constraint to productivity growth.

This edition of the report focuses on building shared prosperity (addressing inequality) and managing the transition to a sustainable economy (addressing environmental issues) along with competitiveness and growth. The report is based on 12 set of factors (pillars) that determine productivity. These are: Institutions; Infrastructure; ICT adoption; Macroeconomic stability; Health; Skills; Product market; Labour market; Financial system; Market size; Business dynamism; and Innovation capability. The index has been an annual edition since 1979.

Which of the following is not included in the assets of a commercial bank in India? [UPSC 2019]

A bank places its funds in assets to earn profits. The assets include investments, loans and advances, money at call and short notice, bills discounted and purchased. It also includes the cash in hand with the banks and also the cash held with the RBI.

The liabilities include deposits (both time and demand) and borrowings. Hence (b) is the correct answer.

The Service Area Approach was implemented under the purview of __. [UPSC 2019]

The Service Area Approach (SAA) introduced in April 1989, in order to bring about an orderly and planned development of rural and semi-urban areas of the country, was extended to all Indian scheduled commercial banks including Regional Rural Banks (RRBs).

Service area approach is an alternative and improved method of Lead Bank Scheme for the deployment of bank credit for rural development. Under SAA, each bank branch in the rural and semi-urban area was designated to serve an area of 15 to 25 villages and the branch was responsible for meeting the needs of bank credit of its service area. The primary objective of SAA was to increase productive lending and forge effective linkages between bank credit, production, productivity and increase in income levels.

With reference to India's Five-Year Plans, which of the following statements is/are correct?

Select the correct answer using the code given below. [UPSC 2019]

1. From the Second Five-Year Plan, there was a determined thrust towards substitution of basic and capital good industries.
2. The Fourth Five-Year Plan adopted the objective of correcting the earlier trend of increased concentration of wealth and economic power.
3. In the Fifth Five-Year Plan, for the first time; the financial sector was included as an integral part of the Plan.

Statement 1 is correct -India adopted the strategy of Import Substitution Industrialization (ISI) in the fifties. The chief objective was to build the self-reliant economy. From the Second Five Year Plan, there was determined thrust towards substitution of basic and capital goods industries. The ISI strategy was based on the model of growth as propounded by PC Mahalanobis.

Statement 2 is correct - The Fourth Plan provided a necessary corrective to the earlier trend which helped particularly, the stronger sections in agriculture as well as in industry to enable them rapidly to enlarge and diversify the production base. In the long run, the full potential of growth cannot be realised unless the energies of all our people are put to profitable use. The emphasis on spreading the impetus and benefits of economic growth to the weaker sections is thus necessary in the interest of equality as well as growth. The Plan will now assist the less prosperous sections of our farming population in improving their position and making a yet bigger contribution to the national economy.

Statement 3 is not correct - The financial sector becomes an integral part of the Plan in the 9th five-year plan.

With reference to the recent developments in science, which one of the following statements is not correct? [UPSC 2019]

Options C and D are correct: Given appropriate surroundings, most plant and animal cells can live, multiply, and even express differentiated properties in a tissue-culture dish. The cells can be watched continuously under the microscope or analyzed biochemically, and the effects of adding or removing specific molecules, such as hormones or growth factors, can be explored. In addition, by mixing two cell types, the interactions between one cell type and another can be studied. Experiments performed on cultured cells are sometimes said to be carried out in vitro (literally, “in glass”) to contrast them with experiments using intact organisms, which are said to be carried out in vivo (literally, “in the living organism”).

Options B is correct: DNA is an organic chemical molecule made from atoms of carbon, hydrogen, nitrogen, oxygen, and phosphorous. Like many other organic molecules that are made inside living cells, DNA can also be synthesized in test tubes using the tools of organic chemistry. In most descriptions of DNA synthesis technology, we hear that DNA sequences can be made by simply adding together the A's T's C's and G's -- the "bases" that make the rungs of the twisted DNA ladder.

Options A is not correct: Functional chromosomes can not be created by joining segments of DNA taken from cells of different species.

With reference to communication technologies, what is/are the difference/differences between LTE (Long-Term Evolution) and VoLTE (Voice over Long-Term Evolution)?

Which of the statements is/are correct? [UPSC 2019]

VoLTE is a technology update to the LTE protocol used by mobile phone networks. Under LTE, the infrastructure of telecom players only allows transmission of data while voice calls are routed to their older 2G or 3G networks. This is why, under LTE, you cannot access your 4G data services while on a call. This leads to problems such as slow internet speeds and poor voice clarity.

VoLTE allows voice calls to be ‘packaged’ and carried through LTE networks. This would mean 4G data accessibility even during calls. Hence, statement 2 is not correct. LTE is commonly marketed as 4G LTE. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

Which one of the following statements is not correct? [UPSC 2019]

Hepatitis B is a viral infection that attacks the liver and can cause both acute and chronic disease. The virus is transmitted through contact with the blood or other body fluids of an infected person. (HIV also gets transmitted via the exchange of a variety of body fluids from infected individuals, such as blood, breast milk, semen and vaginal secretions).

The hepatitis B vaccine is the mainstay of hepatitis B prevention. WHO recommends that all infants receive the hepatitis B vaccine as soon as possible after birth, preferably within 24 hours. (Hence, option b is not correct).

Hepatitis B is a global public health threat and the world’s most common serious liver infection. It is up to 100 times more infectious than the HIV/AIDS virus. In those people who develop symptoms from acute infection, the average time from exposure to symptoms ranges from 2 to 12 weeks. However, most people who are infected with the hepatitis C virus do not develop symptoms. Most people with chronic hepatitis C virus infection do not have any symptoms or have general, or common symptoms such as chronic fatigue and depression. Many people eventually develop chronic liver disease, which can range from mild to severe, including cirrhosis (scarring of the liver) and liver cancer. Chronic liver disease in people with hepatitis C usually happens slowly, without any signs or symptoms, over several decades.

In the context of digital technologies for entertainment consider the following statements:

1. ln Augmented Reality (AR), a simulated environment is created and the physical world is completely shut out.
2. In Virtual Reality (VR), images generated from a computer are projected onto real-life objects or surroundings.
3. AR allows individuals to be present in the world and improves the experience using the camera of smart-phone or PC.
4. VR closes the world, and transposes an individual, providing complete immersion experience.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? [UPSC 2019]

Virtual Reality technology immerses users in a completely virtual environment that is generated by a computer. You need to wear a special VR headset to experience virtual reality. Most VR headsets are connected to a computer (Oculus Rift) or a gaming console (PlayStation VR) but there are standalone devices (Google Cardboard is among the most popular) as well. Most standalone VR headsets work in combination with smartphones – you insert a smartphone, wear a headset, and immerse in the virtual reality.

In augmented reality, users see and interact with the real world while digital content is added to it. Pokemon Go is an example of augmented reality. If you own a modern smartphone, you can easily download an AR app and try this technology. There’s a different way to experience augmented reality, though – with special AR headsets, such as Google Glass, where digital content is displayed on a tiny screen in front of a user’s eye.

Hence, only statements 3 and 4 are correct.

The money multiplier in an economy increases with which one of the following? [UPSC 2019]

Money Multiplier is the ratio of the stock of money to the stock of high powered money. It is the relationship between the monetary base and the money supply of an economy. It explains the increase in the amount of cash in circulation generated by the banks' ability to lend money out of their depositors' funds. Therefore, it refers to how an initial deposit can lead to a bigger final increase in the total money supply.

For example, if the commercial banks gain deposits of Rs1 Lakh and this leads to a final money supply of Rs 10 lakh. The money multiplier is 10.

Therefore, an increase in the banking habit of the population would lead to more deposits and hence increase in Money Multiplier. Hence (b) is the correct answer.

'RNA interference (RNAi)' technology has gained popularity in the last few years. Why?

Select the correct answer using the code given below. [UPSC 2019]

1. It is used in developing gene-silencing therapies.
2. It can be used in developing therapies for the treatment of cancer.
3. It can be used to develop hormone replacement therapies.
4. It can be used to produce crop plants that are resistant to viral pathogens.

RNAi is a gene-silencing technology that inhibits protein synthesis in target cells using double-stranded RNA.

RNAi has huge significance within the Indian context, considering the deep-seated resistance over the years to Bt cotton and other genetically modified seeds. RNA-reliant solutions could be a viable alternative. RNAi is used in functional genomics (systematic analysis of loss-of-function phenotypes induced by RNAi triggers) and developing therapies for the treatment of viral infection, dominant disorders, neurological disorders, and many types of cancers (in vivo inactivation of gene products linked to human disease progression and pathology).

Which one of the following is not the most likely measure the Government/RBI takes to stop the slide of Indian rupee? [UPSC 2019]

Expansionary monetary policy is when the RBI would use its tools to stimulate the economy. That increases the money supply, lowers interest rates, and increases aggregate demand. Lower interest rates will also tend to reduce the value of the currency. If domestic interest rates fall relative to elsewhere, it becomes less attractive to save money in domestic banks. Therefore, it will lead to an outflow of foreign currency and therefore, the slide of Indian Rupee.

Among the agricultural commodities imported by India, which one of the following accounts for the highest imports in terms of value in the last five years? [UPSC 2019]

India is known to export spices to the world. Some fruits we import while some we export but horticultural trade is not a huge portion of the import bill. India has started importing pulses with long term contractual obligations in past few years but India also produces quite a large amount of pulses itself. Moreover, pulses are not very costly compared to other high end agricultural products. Thus, logically, it should be vegetable oils. India imports huge amount of and various types of vegetable oil from many countries. India relies on imports for almost 70% of its vegetable oil consumption. India‘s import bill of vegetable oil has been surging for past many years.

Which of the following are the reasons for the occurrence of multi-drug resistance in microbial pathogens in India?

Select the correct answer using the code given below. [UPSC 2019]

1. Genetic predisposition of some people.
2. Taking incorrect doses of antibiotics to cure diseases.
3. Using antibiotics in livestock farming.
4. Multiple chronic diseases in some people.

Antibiotic consumption in Humans: In 2014, India was the highest consumer of antibiotics, followed by China and the United States. In India, antibiotic FDCs are heavily prescribed even without the knowledge of a proven advantage over single compounds. Injudicious use of antibiotic FDCs could lead to the emergence of bacterial strains resistant to multiple antibiotics. (However, the per capita consumption of antibiotics in India is much lower than in several other high-income countries).

Antibiotic consumption in Animals: The use of antibiotics in food animals plays a major role in human health, as antibiotic-resistant bacteria can be transmitted between humans and animals through contact, in food products, and from the environment.

Hence, 2 and 3 are correct.

Which one of the following groups of plants were domesticated in the 'New World' and introduced into the 'Old World'? [UPSC 2019]

Cotton was cultivated in India since the ancient era. Even Harappan era evidence of cotton cultivation is found. So is wheat. Wheat has been a widely cultivated crop in India since time immemorial. However tobacco, cocoa and rubber came to India through Europeans in the late medieval or early modern era. All of them originated in South America. This process is termed as Columbian exchange (named for Christopher Columbus). It was the widespread transfer of plants, animals, culture, human populations, technology, diseases, and ideas between the Americas, West Africa, and the Old World in the 15th and 16th centuries.

After the voyages of Christopher Columbus in 1492, the Columbian exchange brought New World crops such as maize, potatoes, sweet potatoes, and manioc to Europe, and Old World crops such as wheat, barley, rice, and turnips, and livestock including horses, cattle, sheep, and goats to the Americas.

Which one of the following is not a Harappan site? [UPSC 2019]

Sohgaura is located in Gorakhpur district of U.P.is a copper plate inscription found here. Here Ashokan inscriptions were found. Whereas, Chanhudaro, Kot Diji, Desalpur are Harappan sites.

With reference to the Swadeshi Movement, consider the following statements:

1. It contributed to the revival of the indigenous artisan crafts and industries.
2. The National Council of Education was established as a part of the Swadeshi Movement.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? [UPSC 2019]

The Swadeshi Movement had its genesis in the anti-partition movement which was started to oppose the British decision to partition Bengal.

The Swadeshi Movement was the great emphasis given to self -reliance or ‘Atmasakti’ as a necessary part of the struggle against the Government. One of the major planks of the programme of self -reliance was Swadeshi or national education.

In August 1906, the National Council of Education was established. The Council defined its objectives in this way. . . ‘to organize a system of Education Literary; Scientific and Technical — on National lines and under National control from the primary to the university level. The most important aspect of the movement was a focus on self -reliance or Atma -shakti which led to the development of indigenous industries.

With reference to the Indian National Movement, consider the following pairs: Person Position held

1. Sir Tej Bahadur Sapru: President, All India Liberal Federation.
2. K. C. Neogy: Member, The Constituent Assembly.
3. P. C. Joshi: General Secretary, Communist Party of India.

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? [UPSC 2019]

Tej Bahadur Sapru was a prominent Indian freedom fighter, lawyer and politician. When the Montagu report of 1918 was made public, there was a divide in the Congress over it. The moderates welcomed it while the extremists opposed it. This led to a schism in the Congress with moderate leaders forming the "Indian National Liberal Federation" in 1919. The party (INLF) was founded by Surendra Nath Banerjee and some of its prominent leaders were Tej Bahadur Sapru, V. S. Srinivasa Sastri and M. R. Jayakar.

KC Neogy was an Indian politician from West Bengal. He was a member of the Constituent Assembly of India, member of the first Cabinet of independent India and the chairman of the first Finance Commission of India.

Puran Chand Joshi, one of the early leaders of the communist movement in India. He was the first general secretary of the Communist Party of India from 1935–47.

Hence all the pairs given are correctly matched.

Consider the following statements about 'the Charter Act of 1813':

1. It ended the trade monopoly of the East India Company in India except for trade in tea and trade with China.
2. It asserted the sovereignty of the British Crown over the Indian territories held by the Company.
3. The revenues of India were now controlled by the British Parliament.

Which of the statements given above are correct? [UPSC 2019]

Main Provisions of Charter Act, 1833:

• The monopoly of East India Company to trade with India was brought to an end but the company retained the trade with China and the trade-in tea. Hence statement 1 is correct.
• The company’s shareholders were given a 10.5 per cent dividend on the revenue in India.
• The company was allowed to continued territorial possession for a period of 20 years i.e. from 1833 to 1853, without prejudice to the sovereignty of the Crown. The company was held in the trust to the Crown. Hence statement 2 is correct.
• The Charter Act of 1813 required the Company to maintain its territorial and commercial accounts separately. By this Act, the Company was put under greater control of the British Crown but could retain its hold on the details of administration and Indian revenues. From 1853, the revenues of India were controlled by the British Parliament. Hence, Statement 3 is not correct.

With reference to forced labour (Vishti) in India during the Gupta period, which one of the following statements is correct? [UPSC 2019]

Vishti was a form of forced labour extracted by either state, provincial governor or local chief. It is also mentioned on Gupta era copper inscriptions that enlist a variety of taxes. Junagarh inscription mentions Vishti as one form of tax, which indicates that it was extracted from Gujarat and Malwa region. Since it was forced labour in lieu of tax, it was not wage labour. Wage labour existed in ancient India but it was not called Vishti. Vishti could be extracted from anyone, not in particular from eldest son only.

What is common to the places known as Aliyar, Isapur and Kangsabati? [UPSC 2019]

Aliyar is a village located near Pollachi Town in Coimbatore district in Tamil Nadu, India. The famous Aliyar Reservoir is located in this village.

Isapur Dam is an earth-fill dam on Penganga river near Pusad in the state of Maharashtra.

The Kangsabati Reservoir Project was started in 1956 as part of the Indian Second Five -year Plan to provide water to 3,484.77 square kilometres (1,345.48 sq mi) of land in the districts of Midnapur(erstwhile), Bankura, and Hooghly. It involves irrigation land using water from the Kangsabati River, as well as the Shilabati and the Bhoirobbanki rivers.

Consider the following statements:

1. Asiatic lion is naturally found in India only.
2. Double-humped camel is naturally found in India only.
3. One-horned rhinoceros is naturally found in India only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? [UPSC 2019]

Statement 1 is correct - Asiatic Lion is found naturally in India only. Gir National Park is the last natural habitat of this species.

Statement 2 is not correct - The Bactrian camel or Double-humped camel is a large, even-toed ungulate native to the steppes of Central Asia. In India, it is found in the Nubra valley.

Statement 3 is not correct - One-horned rhino is naturally found in areas of Assam such as Kaziranga National Park, India and also in Chitwan National Park (CNP) of Nepal.

Consider the following:

1. Deification of the Buddha.
2. Treading the path of Bodhisattvas.
3. Image worship and rituals.

Which of the following is/are the feature/features of Mahayana Buddhism? [UPSC 2019]

The emergence of Bodhisattva is central to Mahayana sect of Buddhism, which emerged during the fourth council of Buddhism held in 1st century A.D at Kashmir during the reign of Kanishka. Bodhisattvas were perceived as deeply compassionate beings who accumulated merit through their efforts but used this not to attain Nibbana and thereby abandon the world but to help others. The worship of images of the Buddha and Bodhisattvas became an important part of this tradition. Hence all the statements are correct.

Among the following Which one is the largest exporter of rice in the world in the last five years? [UPSC 2019]

India has been the world’s top rice exporter since the beginning of this decade. (2011 -12). India’s share in world exports of rice in recent years (2014 - 18) has stayed at 25 -26 per cent, Thailand’s has fluctuated between 22 and 25 per cent, and Vietnam’s between 13 and 16 per cent.

Which one of the following National Parks lies completely in the temperate alpine zone? [UPSC 2019]

A sprawling expanse of 87 square kilometres in the Chamoli District of Uttarakhand, Valley of Flowers is set in the backdrop of the majestic Zanskar Ranges. The valley is situated at a very remarkable area, which is the conversion point of Himalayan ranges, Zanskar and Western and Eastern Himalayas. This fairyland located in the high altitudes of Himalayas is protected by snowy mountains.

ln which of the following relief sculpture inscriptions is 'Ranyo Ashoka' (King Ashoka) mentioned along with the stone portrait of Ashoka? [UPSC 2019]

Kanganahalli is about 3 km from Sannati, Karnataka. An important excavation site for Buddhist monuments. The most important finding of the excavation includes a stone sculptured slab bearing the name Ranyo Ashoka. The first inscribed portrait of Ashoka (surrounded by female attendants and queens) found at Kanaganahalli.

Consider the following pairs: Glacier/River

1. Bandarpunch: Yamuna
2. Bara Shigri: Chenab
3. Milam : Mandakini
4. Siachen: Nubra
5. Zemu: Manas

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched? [UPSC 2019]

Bandarpunch is located at the western edge of the High Himalayan Range. It is part of the Sankari Range and lies within the Govind Pashu Vihar National Park and Sanctuary. It is a major watershed for the headwaters of the Yamuna River, whose source lies above Yamnotri, on the west end of the massif below White Peak.

Bara -Sigri glacier which is the second-longest glacier in Himalaya after Gangotri, is located in the Chandra Valley of Lahaul. The glacier feeds the Chenab River.

Milam Glacier is a major glacier of the Kumaon Himalaya. It is a part of the Pithoragarh district of Uttarakhand, India, about 15 kilometres (9 mi) northeast of Nanda Devi. Mandakini is a tributary of the Alaknanda River which originates from the Chorabari Glacier near Kedarnath in Uttarakhand, India.

Siachen Glacier is located in the eastern Karakoram range in the Himalayas. The glacier's melting waters are the main source of the Nubra River in the Indian region of Ladakh, which drains into the Shyok River.

Zemu Glacier is the largest glacier in the Eastern Himalaya. It is located at the base of Kangchenjunga in the Himalayan region of Sikkim, India. Manas River is a transboundary river in the Himalayan foothills between southern Bhutan and India

Consider the following pairs: Sea/Bordering country

1. Adriatic Sea: Albania
2. Black Sea: Croatia
3. Caspian Sea: Kazakhstan
4. Mediterranean Sea: Morocco
5. Red Sea: Syria

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched? [UPSC 2019]

The Adriatic Sea is a body of water separating the Italian Peninsula from the Balkan peninsula. The countries with coasts on the Adriatic are Albania, Bosnia and Herzegovina, Croatia, Italy, Montenegro and Slovenia.

Black Sea is a large inland sea situated at the southeastern extremity of Europe. It is bordered by Ukraine to the north, Russia to the northeast, Georgia to the east, Turkey to the south, and Bulgaria and Romania to the west.

The Caspian Sea is the world's largest inland body of water, variously classed as the world's largest lake or a full-fledged sea. It is an endorheic basin (a basin without outflows) located between Europe and Asia. It is bounded by Kazakhstan to the northeast, Russia to the northwest, Azerbaijan to the west, Iran to the south, and Turkmenistan to the southeast.

The Mediterranean Sea is an intercontinental sea that stretches from the Atlantic Ocean on the west to Asia on the east and separates Europe from Africa. The countries surrounding the Mediterranean in clockwise order are Spain, France, Monaco, Italy, Slovenia, Croatia, Bosnia and Herzegovina, Montenegro, Albania, Greece, Turkey, Syria, Lebanon, Israel, Egypt, Libya, Tunisia, Algeria, and Morocco.

Red Sea is a narrow strip of water extending southeastward from Suez, Egypt, for about 1,200 miles (1,930 km) to the Bab el - Mandeb Strait, which connects with the Gulf of Aden and thence with the Arabian Sea. The six countries bordering the Red Sea proper are - Saudi Arabia, Yemen, Egypt, Sudan, Eritrea and Djibouti.

With reference to the British colonial rule in India, consider the following statements:

1. Mahatma Gandhi was instrumental in the abolition of the system of 'indentured labour'.
2. In Lord Chelmsford's 'War Conference', Mahatma Gandhi did not support the resolution on recruiting Indians for World War.
3. Consequent upon the breaking of salt law by Indian people, the Indian National Congress was declared illegal by the colonial rulers.

Which of the statements given above are correct? [UPSC 2019]

Mahatma Gandhi was instrumental in the abolition of the system of ‘indentured labour’ in South Africa. Moderates supported the First World War. Hence statement 2 is not correct. Congress was declared illegal by the British government after the launch of the second phase of the Civil Disobedience Movement. It was not a factor that favoured in the launching of the second phase of the Civil Disobedience Movement.

Consider the following states:

1. Chhattisgarh
2. Madhya Pradesh
3. Maharashtra
4. Odisha

With reference to the States mentioned above, in terms of percentage of forest cover to the total area of State, which one of the following is the correct ascending order? [UPSC 2019]

The percentage of forested area in 2017 by the state as published by the Forest Survey of India in ascending order is

• Maharashtra (16.47%),
• Madhya Pradesh (25.11%)
• Odisha (32.98%)
• Chhattisgarh (41.09%).

With reference to land reforms in independent India, which one of the following statements is correct? [UPSC 2019]

The unit of application of ceiling differs from State to State. In Andhra Pradesh, Assam, Bihar, Punjab, Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, West Bengal, Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra, it is on the basis of a 'landholder', whereas in the other States it is one the basis of a 'family'. Moreover, there was a list of exemptions to ceiling limits by different states. In order to bring about uniformity, a new policy was evolved in 1971. The main features were:

• Lowering of the ceiling to 28 acres of wet land and 54 acres of unirrigated land.
• A change over to family rather than the individual as the unit for determining land holdings lowered ceiling for a family of five.
• Fewer exemptions from ceilings.
• Retrospective application of the law for declaring Benami transactions null and void; and
• No scope to move the court on the ground of infringement of fundamental rights.

Therefore, Options (a) and (d) are not correct.

After Independence, the immediate goal of the Government was to increase foodgrains production by

(i) switching over from cash crops to food crops;

(ii) intensification of cropping over already cultivated land; and

(iii) increasing cultivated area by bringing cultivable and fallow land under plough.

Therefore, Land reforms were not focussed on cash crops and hence it did not lead to cash crops being the predominant form of cultivation. Also, the Land reforms in Haryana and Punjab were the reason for introducing the Green Revolution. It focussed more on food crops production as the predominant form of cultivation and not cash crops. Therefore, Option (c) is not correct.

The Land Reforms in India aimed at the redistribution of ownership holdings and reorganising operational holdings from the viewpoint of optimum utilisation of land. It has also aimed at providing security of tenure, fixation of rents and conferment of ownership. Hence, option (b) is correct.

Consider the following pairs: Famous Place/River

1. Pandharpur: Chandrabhaga
2. Tiruchirappalli: Cauvery
3. Hampi: Malaprabha

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched? [UPSC 2019]

Pandharpur is a well-known pilgrimage town on the banks of Chandrabhaga River in Solpur district, Maharashtra, India.

Tiruchirapalli District is located along the Kaveri River in Tamil Nadu, India.

Hampi is a city near the Tungabhadra River, with numerous temples, farms and trading markets.

In the context of which one of the following are the terms 'pyrolysis and plasma gasification' mentioned?

Pyrolysis: Pyrolysis is the process of heating organic material at high temperatures in the absence of oxygen.

Plasma Gasification: Plasma gasification is an extreme thermal process using plasma which converts organic matter into syngas (synthesis gas) which is primarily made up of hydrogen and carbon monoxide.

Consider the following:

1. Carbon monoxide
2. Methane
3. Ozone
4. Sulphur dioxide

Which of the above are released into the atmosphere due to the burning of crop/biomass residue? [UPSC 2019]

Crop residues/biomass burning are the cheap and easiest method to dispose of the leftover crop residues (wheat, rice, sugarcane etc.) after harvesting, for land clearing and pest control. Burning of crop residues is a common approach to eliminate waste after harvesting all over the world. Burning of these residues emit gases like sulphur dioxide (SO₂), oxides of nitrogen (NOx), carbon dioxide (CO₂), carbon monoxide (CO), black carbon (BC), organic carbon (OC), methane (CH₄), volatile organic compounds (VOC), non-methane hydrocarbons (NMHCs), ozone (O₃), and aerosols etc which affect the global atmospheric chemistry and climate.

Consider the following statements:

1. As per the recent amendment to the Indian Forest Act, 1927, forest dwellers have the right to fell the bamboos grown on forest areas.
2. As per the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, bamboo is a minor forest produce.
3. The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forests Rights) Act, 2006 allows ownership of minor forest produce to forest dwellers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? [UPSC 2019]

Statement 1 is not correct: The Indian Forest (Amendment) Ordinance, 2017 exempts bamboo grown in non-forest areas from definition of a tree, thereby dispensing with the requirement of felling/transit permit for its economic use.

Statement 2 is correct: Minor Forest Produce (MFP) is defined under the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, as all non-timber forest produce of plant origin and includes bamboo, brushwood, stumps, canes, Tusser, cocoon, honey, waxes, Lac, tendu/kendu leaves, medicinal plants and herbs, roots, tuber and the like.

Statement 3 is correct: The Forest Rights Act 2006 defines forest rights as inclusive of ‘Right of ownership, access to collect, use and dispose of minor forest produce which has traditionally been collected within or outside village boundaries’. Individuals, communities and gram sabhas having rights under this particular section of the Act will not only have the rights to use but also rights of ownership over MFPs.

Which of the following statements are correct about the deposits of 'methane hydrate'?

Select the correct answer using the code given below. [UPSC 2019]

1. Global warming might trigger the release of methane gas from these deposits.
2. Large deposits of 'methane hydrate' are found in Arctic Tundra and under the seafloor.
3. Methane in atmosphere oxidizes to carbon dioxide after a decade or two.

Statement 1 is correct: Methane hydrate is a crystalline solid that consists of a methane molecule surrounded by a cage of interlocking water molecules. Methane hydrate is an "ice" that only occurs naturally in subsurface deposits where temperature and pressure conditions are favourable for its formation. Owing to the melting of ice, global warming might trigger the release of methane gas from these deposits.

Statement 2 is correct: Four Earth environments have the temperature and pressure conditions suitable for the formation and stability of methane hydrate. These are:

• sediment and sedimentary rock units below Arctic permafrost;
• sedimentary deposits along continental margins;
• deep -water sediments of inland lakes and seas; and,
• under Antarctic ice.

Statement 3 is correct: Methane is relatively short-lived in the atmosphere; a molecule of methane is oxidized to water and carbon dioxide after a decade or so, mainly by reaction with another trace gas, the hydroxyl radical OH^-. Thus, unlike the case of carbon dioxide (which stays in the atmosphere longer than methane), a concerted effort to reduce methane emissions would have almost immediate results in terms of reduction of the greenhouse effect. 

Consider the following pairs: Wildlife/Naturally found in

1. Blue-finned Mahseer: Cauvery River
2. Irrawaddy Dolphin: Chambal River
3. Rusty-spotted Cat: Eastern Ghats

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched? [UPSC 2019]

Blue-finned Mahseer is found naturally in the Cauvery river.

The Irrawaddy dolphin is a critically endangered species. It is found near sea coasts and in estuaries and rivers in parts of the Bay of Bengal and Southeast Asia. In India, it is found in Lake Chilika and not the Chambal river. The Gangetic dolphin is found in the Chambal river.

Rusty Spotted Cat is one of the world's smallest feline. The rusty-spotted cat, one of the few wild cats that inhabit the forests of Andhra Pradesh, is among the animals in the Eastern Ghats.

In India, 'extended producer responsibility' was introduced as an important feature in which of the following? [UPSC 2019]

Extended producer’s responsibility (EPR) is the main feature of the E-waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 2011, wherein the producer of electrical and electronic equipment has the responsibility of managing such equipment after its ‘end of life’, thus the producer is responsible for their products once the consumer discards them. 

Consider the following statements:

1. Agricultural soils release nitrogen oxides into the environment.
2. Cattle release ammonia into the environment.
3. Poultry industry releases reactive nitrogen compounds into the environment.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? [UPSC 2019]

Statement 1 is correct: A major direct source of nitrous oxide from agricultural soils is that of synthetic fertilizer use. Where large applications of fertilizer are combined with soil conditions favourable to denitrification, large amounts of nitrous oxide can be produced and emitted to the atmosphere.

Statement 2 is correct: Ammonia is a common by-product of animal waste due to the often inefficient conversion of feed nitrogen into the animal product. Emissions of ammonia from livestock farming are responsible for the acidification and eutrophication of deposited ammonia in the environment.

Statement 3 is correct: Reactive nitrogen includes – ammonia, nitrate, nitric oxide (NO), nitrous oxide (N₂O). Livestock and Poultry are both responsible for emissions of these.

Why is there a great concern about the 'microbeads' that are released into the environment? [UPSC 2019]

Microbeads are manufactured solid plastic particles of less than one millimetre in their largest dimension. They are most frequently made of polyethylene but can be of other petrochemical plastics such as polypropylene and polystyrene. Microbeads, small pellets of plastic, extensively used in personal care products such as shampoo, baby lotion and face cream and considered toxic to marine life, are being banned internationally.

As per the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016 in India, which one of the following statements is correct? [UPSC 2019]

The SWM Rules 2016 provide for detailed criteria for setting ‐up solid waste processing and treatment facility, solid waste management in hilly areas, for waste to energy process, for Sanitary Landfills, for site selection, development of facilities at the sanitary landfills, specifications for landfilling operations and closure on completion of landfilling, pollution prevention, Closure and Rehabilitation of Old Dumps etc.

In India, the use of carbofuran, methyl parathion, phorate and triazophos is viewed with apprehension. These chemicals are used as ________. [UPSC 2019]

Carbofuran, phorate, methyl parathion, monocrotophos, methyl demethon, prophenophos and triazophos are pesticides used in agriculture.

Consider the following statements:

1. As per law, the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority exists at both National and State levels.
2. People’s participation is mandatory in the compensatory afforestation programmes carried out under the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? [UPSC 2019]

Statement 1 is correct: As per law, the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority exists at both National and State levels.

Statement 2 is not correct: It does not provide for mandatory people participation in the compensatory afforestation programmes carried out under the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016.

Consider the following statements:

1. Saint Nimbarka was a contemporary of Akbar.
2. Saint Kabir was greatly influenced by Shaikh Ahmad Sirhindi.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? [UPSC 2019]

Statement 1 is incorrect - Nimbarka, a Telugu Brahmin, is believed to have been a younger contemporary of Ramanuja (11th Century). He spent most of his time in Vrindavan near Mathura in North India. He believed in total devotion to Krishna and Rama. The Mughal emperor Akbar lived from 1542 -1605.

Statement 2 is incorrect - Naqshbandi Sufi Saint Shaikh Ahmad Sirhindi was in Haryana in the period of 1624. Whereas Kabir Das is a 15th-century mystical poet and great Bhakti Saint of India. He is the most important Nirguna Bhakti saint. The nirguna bhaktas were devotees of a formless God even while calling him variously as Rama, Govinda, Hari or Raghunatha.

Building 'Kalyana Mandapas' was a notable feature in the temple construction in the kingdom of _______. [UPSC 2019]

A Kalyana Mandapa was meant to celebrate divine weddings in Vijayanagara Empire.

Consider the following statements: A digital signature is

1. an electronic record that identifies the certifying authority issuing it.
2. used to serve as a proof of identity of an individual to access information or serve on the Internet.
3. an electronic method of signing an electronic document and ensuring that the original content is unchanged.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? [UPSC 2019]

Digital Signature Certificates (DSC) are the digital equivalent (that is electronic format) of physical or paper certificates. Examples of physical certificates are drivers' licenses, passports or membership cards.

Certificates serve as a proof of identity of an individual for a certain purpose; for example, a driver's license identifies someone who can legally drive in a particular country. Likewise, a digital certificate can be presented electronically to prove your identity, to access information or services on the Internet or to sign certain documents digitally.

The word 'Denisovan' is sometimes mentioned in media in reference to ______. [UPSC 2019]

The first evidence for Denisovans or Denisova hominins was first discovered in 2008 in a cave in the Altai mountains in Siberia. Analysis of a fossil jawbone containing molars recovered from Baishiya Karst cave in Xiahe, Gansu, China shows Denisovans lived in the Tibetan Plateau some 1,60,000 years ago. This is the first time evidence of Denisovan presence has been found outside the Denisova cave.

Atal Innovation Mission is set up under the ______. [UPSC 2019]

The Atal Innovation Mission (AIM) is a flagship initiative set up by the NITI Aayog to promote innovation and entrepreneurship across the length and breadth of the country.

AlM's objectives are to create and promote an ecosystem of innovation and entrepreneurship across the country at school, university, research institutions, MSME and industry levels.

Consider the following statements:

1. In the revenue administration of Delhi Sultanate, the in-charge of revenue collection was known as ‘Amil’.
2. The Iqta system of Sultans of Delhi was an ancient indigenous institution.
3. The office of ‘Mir Bakshi’ came into existence during the reign of Khalji Sultans of Delhi.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? [UPSC 2019]

Statement 1 is correct - In the revenue administration of Delhi Sultanate, the in-charge of revenue collection was known as ‘Amil’. Hence statement 1 is correct.

Statement 2 is incorrect - The initial Turkish conquests in India in the early 13th century displaced many local chiefs. In order to consolidate, the Turkish rulers made revenue assignments (iqta), in lieu of cash, to their nobles. So, Iqtas were provinces or spheres of influence which were put under the charge of officers called 'Iqtadars' (governors). lqta is an Arabic word and the institution had been in force in the early Islamic world as a form of reward for services to the state. It was used in the Caliphate administration as a way of financing operations and paying civil and military officers. It was not an ancient indigenous institution.

Statement 3 is not correct - In Akbar's administration, the military department was headed by Mir Bakshi which looked after all matters pertaining to the military administration. He was also considered as the head of nobility.

Who among of the following Mughal Emperors shifted emphasis from illustrated manuscripts to the album and individual portrait? [UPSC 2019]

With the establishment of the Mughal empire, the Mughal School of painting originated in the reign of Akbar in 1560 A.D. Emperor Akbar was keenly interested in the art of painting and architecture. During his reign, an illustrated manuscript of the Tuti-nama appears to be the first work of the Mughal School. The style of painting in this manuscript shows the Mughal style in its formative stage. Shortly after that, between 1564-69 A.D. was completed a very ambitious project in the form of Hamzanama illustrations on cloth, originally consisting of 1400 leaves in seventeen volumes. Each leaf measured about 27"x20". The style of Hamzanama is more developed and refined than that of the Tutinama.

Under Jahangir, painting acquired greater charm, refinement and dignity. He had a great fascination for nature and took delight in the portraiture of birds, animals and flowers.

Recently, India signed a deal known as 'Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field' with which of the following countries? [UPSC 2019]

During the visit of H. E. Vladimir Putin, President of the Russian Federation to India, Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Co-operation Areas in the Nuclear Field Identified Jointly by India and Russia was signed on 5th October 2018 in New Delhi. The two countries intent to develop a project of six nuclear power units of Russian design at a new site in India, further enhance cooperation in the third countries and bring in new perspective nuclear technologies together with joint construction of nuclear power plants.

Which of the following are in Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve? [UPSC 2019]

Located in the Western Ghats in the south of the country, the Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve is a unique genetic reservoir of cultivated plants. Three wildlife sanctuaries, Shendurney, Peppara and Neyyar, are located in the site, as well as the Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve.

In the context of proposals to the use of hydrogen-enriched CNG (H-CNG) as fuel for buses in public transport, consider the following statements:

1. The main advantage of the use of H-CNG is the elimination of carbon monoxide emissions.
2. H-CNG as a fuel reduces carbon dioxide and hydrocarbon emissions.
3. Hydrogen up to one-fifth by volume can be blended with CNG as fuel for buses.
4. H-CNG makes the fuel less expensive than CNG.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? [UPSC 2019]

Statement 1 is not correct and statements 2 and 3 are correct - H-CNG is a blend of hydrogen and CNG, the ideal hydrogen concentration being 18%. Compared to conventional CNG, use of H-CNG can reduce the emission of carbon monoxide up to 70% and 15% reduction in total hydrocarbon emissions, besides enabling up to 5% savings in fuel.

Statement 4 is not correct - In its report to the Supreme Court, the EPCA has estimated that to fuel Delhi’s 5,500 buses, about 400 tonnes H-CNG would be needed per day. Setting up four fuel-dispensing facilities would cost Rs 330 crore, which can be funded from the Environment Compensation Charge (ECC) fund made up of cess on commercial vehicles entering Delhi, it said. For consumers who pay Rs 42 per kg for CNG, the cost of H-CNG would not be more than Rs 43 per kg.

Recently, there was a growing awareness in our country about the importance of Himalayan nettle (Girardinia diversifolia) because it is found to be a sustainable source of _______. [UPSC 2019]

In many parts of the world, natural resources are the only source of livelihood opportunities available to people. Recently, Girardinia diversifolia (Himalayan nettle), a fibre-yielding plant, has become an important livelihood option for people living in the remote mountainous villages of the Hindu Kush Himalaya. There is a community in Khar, a hamlet in Darchula district in far-western Nepal, which produces fabrics from Himalayan nettle. The fabric and the things made from it are sold in local as well as national and international markets as high-end products.

Consider the following statements. Which of the statements given below are correct? [UPSC 2019]

1. Petroleum and Regulatory Board (PNGRB) is the first regulatory body set up by the Government of India.
2. One of the tasks of PNGRB is to ensure competitive markets for gas.
3. Appeals against the decisions of PNGRB go before the Appellate Tribunals for Electricity.

Statement 1 is not correct - The Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) was constituted under The Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board Act, 2006.

Statement 2 is correct - The Act provide for the establishment of Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board to protect the interests of consumers and entities engaged in specified activities relating to petroleum, petroleum products and natural gas and to promote competitive markets and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto.

Statement 3 is correct - The Appellate Tribunal established under section 110 of the Electricity Act, 2003 (36 of 2003) is the Appellate Tribunal for the purposes of Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board Act, 2006.

With reference to Mughal India, what is/are the difference/differences between Jagirdar and Zamindar?

Select the correct answer using the code given below: [UPSC 2019]

1. Jagirdars were holders of land assignments in lieu of judicial and police duties, whereas Zamindars were holders of revenue rights without obligation to perform any duty other than revenue collection.
2. Land assignments to Jagirdars were hereditary and revenue rights of Zamindars were not hereditary.

The Sultan was the fountain pen of the judiciary system in the Mughal period. He was all in all in the state. He was responsible for any kind of error in the state. The second agency of judiciary was the Qazi. Qazi had a bigger role in the judiciary system in the state and he held the court and gave justice. Whereas Jagirdars were those mansabdars who were given salary in lieu of military service in terms of jagirs (land). Hence statement 1 is not correct. The judicial and police functions were performed locally by zamindars.

An important feature of the jagir system was shifting of jagir-holders from one jagir to another for administrative reasons. This system of transfers checked the jagirdars from developing local roots. Thus jagirs were transferable and could be seized too. Zamindars on the other hand were hereditary. The zamindars were present in practically every part of the Mughal Empire and held the most significant position in the agrarian structure of Mughal India. Hence statement 2 is not correct

Consider the following statements: As per the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Central (Amendment) Rules, 2018

1. if rules for fixed-term employment are implemented, it becomes easier for the firms/companies to lay off workers.
2. no notice of termination of employment shall be necessary in the case of the temporary workman.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? [UPSC 2019]

Statement 1 is correct - The government has notified fixed-term employment for all sectors through an amendment to the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Central Rules, 1946. Fixed-term employment for all sectors will make it easier for companies to hire -and -fire workers along with reducing the role of middlemen.

Statement 2 is correct - No notice of termination of employment shall be necessary in the case of temporary workman whether monthly rated, weekly rated or piece rated and probationers or badli workmen.

Consider the following statements: The Environment Protection Act, 1986 empowers the Government of India to

1. state the requirement of public participation in the process of environmental protection, and the procedure and manner in which it is sought.
2. lay down the standards for emission or discharge of environmental pollutants from various sources.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? [UPSC 2019]

Statement 1 is correct: The Environment Impact Assessment Notification was made by the GOI in pursuance of the powers conferred on it by the Environment Protection Act [sub -section (1) and clause (v) of subsection (2) of section 3 of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986]. One of the most significant determinants of EIA is the procedure of Public Hearing (PH) and Public Participation (PP) on any developmental project.

Statement 2 is correct: As per Section 3 of the Environment Protection Act, the Government of India is empowered to make rules in the laying down standards for emission or discharge of environmental pollutants from various sources. 

With reference to the cultivation of Kharif crops in India in the last five years, consider the following statements:

1. Area under rice cultivation is the highest.
2. Area under the cultivation of jowar is more than that of oilseeds.
3. Area of cotton cultivation is more than that of sugarcane.
4. Area under sugarcane cultivation has steadily decreased.

Which of the statements given above are correct? [UPSC 2019]

The area under rice cultivation in India, in 2014 was 44.14 million hectares. In 2017 it became 43.19 million hectares which are highest amongst all.

Area under jowar cultivation annually 17 to 18 million hectares. And oilseed area – 28 million hectares (2013-14), 26.1 million hectares (2015-16). Hence area under oilseed cultivation is more than jowar cultivation.

The area under sugarcane cultivation 4.95 million hectares (2013-14), 5.066 million hectares (2014-15), 4.953 million hectares (2015-16). Hence it has not a steady decrease for sugarcane.

The area under cotton cultivation—11.9 million hectares (2013-14), 12.81 million hectares (2014-15) and 11.72 million hectares (201516). Hence area under cotton cultivation is more than sugar cultivation. (Annual report 2016-17, Ministry of Agriculture) Hence only statements 1 and 3 are correct.

What is Cas9 protein that is often mentioned in news? [UPSC 2019]

CRISPR-Cas9 is a system used by bacterial cells to recognise and destroy viral DNA as a form of adaptive immunity. Using components of the CRISPR system, researchers can remove, add or alter specific DNA sequences in the genome of higher organisms.

The gene-editing tool has two components — a single-guide RNA (sgRNA) that contains a sequence that can bind to DNA, and the Cas9 enzyme which acts as a molecular scissor that can cleave DNA.

Consider the following statements: Which of the statements given below is/are correct? [UPSC 2019]

1. Coal sector was nationalized by the Government of India under Indira Gandhi.
2. Now, coal blocks are allocated on a lottery basis.
3. Till recently, India imported coal to meet the shortages of domestic supply, but now India is self-sufficient in coal production.

Adequate capital investment to meet the burgeoning energy needs of the country was not forthcoming from the private coal mine owners. Unscientific mining practices adopted by some of them and poor working conditions of labour in some of the private coal mines became matters of concern for the Government. On account of these reasons, the Central Government took a decision to nationalise the private coal mines. The nationalisation was done in two phases, the first with the coking coal mines in 1971 -72 and then with the non -coking coal mines in 1973. Indira Gandhi was the Prime Minister of the country from 1971 -1973. Statement 1 is correct.

Statement 2 is incorrect - After the Supreme Court cancelled the coal block allocations in 2014. To manage and reallocate the cancelled blocks in a transparent and accountable manner, the Coal Mines (Special Provisions) Act, 2015 was enacted. Enabling provisions were made in the above said Act for ‘allocation of coal mines by way of auction and allotment for the sale of coal.’ In a recent notification by the Government on February 20, the Government opened up commercial coal mining for the private sector on February 20 and approved the methodology for auction of coal mines/blocks for sale of Coal. There will be an ‘ascending forward auction’ -- a two-stage online auction comprising (i) technical bid and (ii) financial bid with initial and final price offers. The bidding parameter will be the price offer in ₹/tonne, which will be paid to the State government on the actual production of Coal.

Statement 3 is incorrect - India is still one of the largest importers of Coal. Domestic CoalCoal has been able to meet only 75% of our annual coal demand. The shortfall in local coal availability is met through imports of around 200 mt.

With reference to Mian Tansen, which one of the following statements is not correct? [UPSC 2019]

Tansen was the most important musician during the reign of Akbar & is credited with composing many ragas. Tansen was one of the best-known dhrupad singers and one of the nine jewels of Emperor Akbar's court. He composed songs on his patrons. Tansen was the title given to him by Raja Vikramjit of Gwalior. Tansen was a court musician in the darbar of Raja Ramachandra of Bandavagarh (Rewa).

When Akbar heard of his prodigious talent, he sent a ‘firman’ to the king asking for Tansen and made him one of the Navaratnas in his court. He gave him the title of ‘Mian’. Hence Option A is an incorrect statement.

In the context of India, which of the following factors is/are contributor/contributors to reducing the risk of a currency crisis?

Select the correct answer using the code given below. [UPSC 2019]

1. The foreign currency earnings of India's IT sector.
2. Increasing government expenditure.
3. Remittances from Indians abroad.

The currency crisis is brought on by a decline in the value of a country's currency. This decline in value negatively affects an economy by creating instabilities in exchange rates, meaning that one unit of a certain currency no longer buys as much as it used to in another currency.

A substantial amount of foreign exchange reserves can help to cushion against any risks of the currency crisis. The foreign current earnings of India's IT sector and remittances from abroad would lead more inflow of foreign currencies in the economy and boost the foreign exchange reserves. Hence, Statements 1 and 3 are correct.

Statement 2 is not correct as increasing the government expenditure is not related to change in foreign exchange reserves or any currency fluctuations.

In a given year in India, official poverty lines are higher in some states than in others because ____. [UPSC 2019]

The Planning Commission methodology for estimating poverty at national and state level was regarded by some as inappropriate in giving a representative picture of the incidence of poverty in the country. The main points of the criticism were:

(a) the adjustment procedure;

(b) the choice of deflators to represent price changes in the poverty line;

(c) application of the same poverty line in all the states, which imply the absence of price differentials across the states;

(d) use of a fixed consumption basket over time; and

(e) the uniform consumption basket for all the states.

Consider the following statements:

1. According to the Indian Patents Act, a biological process to create a seed can be patented in India.
2. In India, there is no Intellectual Property Appellate Board.
3. Plant varieties are not eligible to be patented in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? [UPSC 2019]

Statement 1 is not correct and Statement 3 is correct - As per the Patents Act, 1970 - "plants and animals in whole or any part thereof other than micro-organisms but including seeds, varieties and species and essentially biological processes for production or propagation of plants and animals" are inventions not patentable.

Statement 2 is not correct - The Intellectual Property Appellate Board, a quasi-judicial body, was constituted in September 1958. The Board is entrusted with the task of adjudication of disputes pertaining to copyright registration, assignment of copyright, the grant of Licenses in respect of works withheld from the public, unpublished Indian works, production and publication of translations and works for certain specified purposes. It also hears cases in other miscellaneous matters instituted before it under the Copyright Act, 1957.

The economic cost of food grains to the Food Corporation of India is Minimum Support Price and bonus (if any) paid to the farmers plus _____. [UPSC 2019]

The economic cost of foodgrains consists of three components, namely the MSP including central bonus (the price paid to farmers), procurement incidentals, and the cost of distribution. The economic cost has witnessed a significant increase in the last few years proportionate to the increase in the MSPs—an increase of 1 unit in MSP leads to a 0.48 unit increase in economic cost in case of wheat. The economic cost of wheat and rice in 2019-20 is estimated to be ₹35 and ₹25 per kilogram, receptively (which were ₹20 and ₹15 per kilogram, respectively in 2010-11).

High economic cost necessitated a detailed review of the open-ended procurement policy, especially in states that offer high bonus on top of MSP and those that impose high taxes and statutory levies, as well as stocking and distribution policies. In this regard, the government set up a High-Level Committee (HLC) in 2015 (Shanta Kumar as its Chairman) to suggest inter-alia restructuring or unbundling of the FCI with a view to improving its operational efficiency and financial management. 

Which one of the following is not a subindex of the World Bank's 'Ease of Doing Business Index'? [UPSC 2019]

Doing Business report, an annual publication (since 2004) of the World Bank Group ranks the countries of the world on the basis of their ‘regulations that enhance business activity and those that constrain it’. Popularly known as ‘ease of doing business report’ it measures the state of business regulation in countries on the following 12 parameters however, in ranking the last two parameters (in the list below) are not included:

1. Starting a business,

2. Dealing with construction permits,

3. Getting electricity,

4. Registering property,

5. Getting credit,

6. Protecting minority investors,

7. Paying taxes,

8. Trading across borders,

9. Enforcing contracts,

10. Resolving insolvency, and

11. Employing workers, and

12. Contracting with governments.

In the Doing Business 2020 report India has been ranked 63rd among the 190 countries. This shows a jump of 14 ranks over the preceding report. Though, only two cities, Delhi and Mumbai are included in the report it speaks enough about the business regulatory environment in the country. The report has recognized India as one of the ten economies that have improved the most (from 142nd in 2014 to 63rd in 2019). Though, India has been able to improve its rank in 7 out of 10 parameters, it needs to work on other indicators to improve its ranking further to be ranked within the top 50 economies. India continues to trail in parameters such as Ease of Starting Business, Registering Property, Paying Taxes, and Enforcing Contracts. To get included among the top 30 countries (as the Government has targeted under its Output-Outcome Framework Document), India requires a nuts-and-bolts approach of feedback loops, monitoring and continuous adjustment.

In the context of which of the following do some scientists suggest the used of cirrus cloud thinning technique and the injection of sulphate aerosol into the stratosphere? [UPSC 2019]

The geoengineering technique known as a stratospheric aerosol injection (SAI) could limit rising temperatures that are causing climate change.

Cloud thinning strategy would be used to shoot powder over cirrus clouds, which would thin out their coverage and alter their radiative effects over Earth.

In the context of any country, which one of the following would be considered as part of its social capital? [UPSC 2019]

Social capital is a sociological concept that refers to the intangible relational assets that emerge from social interactions. These assets are generated through giving and take and activate the “norm of reciprocity,” creating social obligations that connect and bind people and groups. The more social capital is used, the greater the benefits.

The concept of social capital is composed of three distinct but interrelated structural, emotional and behavioural components. They are, respectively, networks, trust and collaborative cultural norms.

In every society, some people have a greater share of valued resources – money, property, education, health, and power – than others. These social resources can be divided into three forms of capital – economic capital in the form of material assets and income; cultural capital such as educational qualifications and status; and social capital in the form of networks of contacts and social associations (Bourdieu 1986). Often, these three forms of capital overlap and one can be converted into the other. For example, a person from a well -off family (economic capital) can afford expensive higher education, and so can acquire cultural or educational capital. Someone with influential relatives and friends (social capital) may – through access to good advice, recommendations or information – manage to get a well -paid job.

Consider the following pairs: Movement/Organization Leader

1. All India Anti-Untouchability League: Mahatma Gandhi
2. All India Kisan Sabha: Swami Sahajanand Saraswati
3. Self-Respect Movement: E. V. Ramaswami Naicker

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? [UPSC 2019]

In order to better organize the campaign for the amelioration of the untouchables' condition, Gandhi set up a new body in October 1932. It was first named the All India Anti-Untouchability League and later renamed the Harijan Sevak Sangh. Gandhi started publishing a weekly journal called "Harijan" on 11 February 1933 from Yerwada Jail during British rule. Hence pair 1 is correctly matched.

All India Kisan Congress Sabha, 1936 was founded in Lucknow in April 1936 with Swami Sahjanand Saraswati as the President and N.G. Ranga as the general secretary. Hence, pair 2 is correctly matched.

E. V. Ramaswami Naicker organized the "Self Respect Movement", designed as Dravidian Uplift, seeking to expose Brahminical tyranny and the deceptive methods by which they controlled all spheres of Hindu life. Hence, pair 3 is correctly matched.

Consider the following statements about Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India:

1. PVTGs reside in 18 States and one Union Territory.
2. A stagnant or declining population is one of the criteria for determining PVTG status
3. There are 95 PVTGs officially notified in the country so far.
4. Irular and Konda Reddi tribes are included in the list of PVTGs.

Which of the statements given above are correct? [UPSC 2019]

Particularly vulnerable tribal group (PVTG) (earlier: Primitive tribal group) is a government of India classification created with the purpose of enabling improvement in the conditions of certain communities with, particularly low development indices. The features of such a group include a preagricultural system of existence that is the practice of hunting and gathering, zero or negative population growth, extremely low level of literacy in comparison with other tribal groups. PVTGs reside in 18 States and one Union Territory of Andaman and Nicobar islands. There are 75 PVTGs officially notified in the country so far.

The Konda Reddis designated PVTG are found in the Indian state of Andhra Pradesh and Irular are designated PVTG in the Indian state of Tamil Nadu.

Once again this question could have been solved through elimination. After the death of foreigners in Andaman and Nicobar Island, the issue and reports related to the PVTG were widely discussed in the newspapers. The underline in each of them was that there are 75 PVTGs in India. Based on this, statement 3 would have been incorrect and this would have given us the correct answer.