UPSC Prelims 2018 Solutions

Consider the following statements: Which of the statements given below is/ are correct?

1. The Parliament of India can place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
2. The validity of a law placed in the Ninth Schedule cannot be examined by any court and no judgement can be made on it.

To ensure that agrarian reform legislation did not run into heavy weather, the legislature amended the Constitution in the year 1951 which inserted the Ninth Schedule. Initially the rationale for the Ninth Schedule was to protect legislation dealing with property rights. However, it was expanded to all laws in general. In the Golaknath Case, the constitutionality of the Ninth Schedule was challenged. The Supreme Court held that no amendment can take away the fundamental rights of the individual even if it is a Constitutional Amendment.

In Kesavananda Bharati case, the Supreme Court held that the Fundamental Rights are not immune from the Constitutional Amendment Act. However, no act or constitutional amendment can harm the Basic Structure of the Constitution. Therefore, the laws put under the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution are immune from the judicial review as long as they do not harm the basic structure of the Constitution.

Which of the following reflects the most appropriate relationship between law and liberty?

Liberty and Laws are often discussed with respect to their relation with each other. To understand the relation, it is necessary to understand the meaning of liberty. It is the absence of constraints - both external constraints which prohibit doing certain things as well as the conditional constraints which restrict the individual to realize her potential and talents. Therefore it will be vague to let a person absolutely free without any restraint in order to exercise her control while she restricts the opportunities for another individual. In this context, the "harm principle" of John Stuart Mill is worth discussing. It says that a person can be given that much liberty up to which he does not inhibit the liberties of others.

In the absence of laws and restraints, the society will turn up into a chaos and there will be no liberty left with the people. Though they do not have constraints, they don't have freedom from the conditional barriers either. Therefore it is the laws and restrictions which prevent the liberty - of both individuals as well as of society. Therefore Option B is the correct answer.

Consider the following statement: Which of the statements given below is/ are correct?

1. In the first Lok Sabha, the single largest party in the opposition was the Swatantra Party.
2. In the Lok Sabha, a Leader of the opposition was recognised for the first time in 1969.
3. In the Lok Sabha, if the party does not have a minimum of 75 members, its leaders cannot be recognised as the Leaders of the Opposition.

Statement 1 is incorrect - CPI was the party in opposition, led by Comrade Shripad Amrut Dange. The Indian National Congress (INC) won a landslide victory, winning 364 of the 489 seats and 45% of the total votes polled. This was over four times as many votes as the second-largest party, CPI.

Statement 2 is correct - It was in 1969 that for the first time the Leader of the Opposition was recognised. It was Ram Subhag Singh.

Statement 3 is incorrect - The post received statutory recognition through the Salaries and Allowances of Leaders of Opposition in Parliament Act, 1977, which defines the term "Leader of the Opposition" as that member of the Lok Sabha or the Rajya Sabha who, for the time being, is the Leader of that House of the Party in Opposition to the Government having the greatest numerical strength and recognised, as such, by the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha or the Speaker of the Lok Sabha. A party needs to have 54 members. (at least 10%).

The question could be solved using elimination method. With general understanding of Parliament, it is widely known that to be appointed as leader of the opposition, with at least 10% strength in Lok Sabha, which makes it 54. Therefore, statement 3 is incorrect and eliminating it we get the correct answer.

Regarding the Money Bill, which of the following statements is not correct?

Under Article 110, a Money Bill is not concerned with the appropriation of money out of the Contingency Fund of India. Important to know is that no money needs to be appropriated from the Contingency Funds of India. The Contingency Fund is the fund which is used in the case of natural disasters or epidemics. The government can withdraw money from the fund in such emergencies without any approval from the parliament.

In the case of the Consolidated Funds of India on the other hand, the money needs Parliament approval through appropriation.

Consider the following statements: Which of the statements given below is/are correct?

1. As per the Right To Education (RTE) Act, to be eligible for appointment as a teacher in a state, a person would be required to possess the minimum qualification laid down by the concerned State council of Teacher education.
2. As per the RTE Act, for teaching primary classes, a candidate is required to pass a Teacher Eligibility Test conducted in accordance with the National Council of Teacher Education guidelines.
3. In India, more than 90 % of teacher education institutions are directly under the State Governments.

Statement 1 is incorrect and statement 2 is correct - The eligibility for the teachers is laid down by the National Council of Teacher Education (NCTE). In the education sector, there are 25% K-12 (kindergarten to 12th) schools in India and 75% are the government schools. Despite having only 25% numbers of private schools, enrollment in the private school is more than 40%. From the mid-1960s to 1993, the number of TEIs in India went up from about 1,200 to about 1,500. After the NCTE was set up, the number of TEIs exploded, to about 16,000 (over 90% private) by 2011. National Council for Teacher Education is a statutory body of Indian government set up under the National Council for Teacher Education Act, 1993 in 1995 is to formally oversee standards, procedures and processes in the Indian education system. Statement 3 is incorrect

If the President of India exercises his power as provided under Article 356 of the Constitution in respect of a particular State, then

When the President's Rule is imposed in a State, the Council of Ministers is necessarily dismissed and according to the Supreme Court judgement in the S.R. Bommai vs. UoI 1994 case, the State Assembly shall not be dissolved, till at least the Parliament approves the President's Rule.

Under Article 356 (b), the President may declare that the powers of the State Legislature shall be exercisable by or under the authority of the Parliament. The suspension of the Fundamental Rights arises only when the National Emergency is imposed.

Consider the following statements: Which of the statements given below is/are correct ?

1. The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly shall vacate his/her office if he/she ceases to be a member of the Assembly.
2. Whenever the Legislative Assembly is dissolved, the Speaker shall vacate his/her office immediately.

Statement 1 is correct - The Speaker is elected by the assembly itself from amongst its members. Usually, the Speaker remains in office during the life of the assembly. However, he vacates his office earlier in any of the following three cases:

• If he ceases to be a member of the assembly;
• if he resigns by writing to the deputy speaker; and
• If he is removed by a resolution passed by a majority of all the then members of the assembly. Such a resolution can be moved only after giving 14 days advance notice. 

Statement 2 is incorrect - When a Legislative Assembly is dissolved, all the MLAs of the House lose their membership of the House, but the Speaker continues in his office till the next Assembly is constituted.

Consider the following statements: Which of the statements given below is /are correct?

1. No criminal proceeding shall be instituted against the Governor of a state in any court during his terms of office.
2. The emoluments and allowances of the Governor of a state shall not be diminished during his terms of office.

Article 361(1) - The President, or the Governor of a State, shall not be answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his office or for any act done or purporting to be done by him in the exercise and performance of those powers and duties.a

Article 158(4) - The emoluments and allowances of the Governor shall not be diminished during his term of office.

Right to Privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of Right to Life and Personal Liberty. Which of the following in the Constitution of India correctly and appropriately imply the above statement?

In Maneka Gandhi vs Union of India case, the Supreme Court has stated that the mere animal existence of human beings is not life which is mentioned in Article 21. But the court argued that there are certain more elements to life. Therefore, Article 21 resulted in inclusion of various aspects of life through successive judgements of the Supreme Court. All aspects of life, as defined by the Supreme Court, are integral part of Article 21 and are as fundamental as are the fundamental rights. These are also known as Extended Fundamental Rights.

In Govind vs State of Madhya Pradesh, the Supreme Court termed that Privacy is the fundamental aspect of life, therefore the Right to Privacy is the fundamental right under Article 21. This position was further reiterated by the Supreme Court of India Peoples Union for Civil Liberties v/s Union of India case, in which the Supreme Court upheld the right to privacy as a fundamental right under article 21. Recently, in the Aadhar judgement, or K. Puttaswamy Case, the Supreme Court again stated that the Right to Privacy is a Fundamental Right under article 21.

With reference to the election of the President of India, consider the following statements: Which of the statements given below is/are correct?

Under Article 55(2)(a), the value of the vote of an MLA is based on the population of that State and the number of elected MLAs in that State. The value of votes of MPs from the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha is the same.

NOTE: The other interpretation is that the value of the votes of all the MPs of Lok Sabha is more than the value of the votes of all the MPs of Rajya Sabha. However, the language of statement 2 does not support the above interpretation. In such a case statement 2 should read: "The (total) value(s) of the votes(s) of MPs of the Lok Sabha is more than the value(s) of the vote(s) of MPs of Rajya Sabha."

Therefore we feel statement 2 is wrong and the answer is (a) only and not (c).

With reference to the Parliament of India, which of the following Parliamentary Committees scrutinizes and reports to the House whether the power to make regulations, rules, sub-rules, by-laws, etc. conferred by the Constitution or delegated by the Parliament are being properly exercised by the Executive within the scope of such delegation?

Committee on Subordinate Legislation - This committee examines and reports to the House whether the powers to make regulations, rules, sub-rules and bye-laws delegated by the Parliament or conferred by the Constitution to the Executive are being properly exercised by it. In both Houses, the committee consists of 15 members. It was constituted in 1953. 

Committee on Government Assurances - This committee examines the assurances, promises and undertakings given by ministers from time to time on the floor of the House and reports on the extent to which they have been carried through. In the Lok Sabha, it consists of 15 members and in the Rajya Sabha, it consists of 10 members. It was constituted in 1953.

Rules Committee - This committee considers the matters of procedure and conduct of business in the House and recommends necessary amendments or additions to the rules of the House. The Lok Sabha committee consists of 15 members, including the Speaker as its ex-officio chairman. In the Rajya Sabha, it consists of 16 members, including the Chairman as its ex-officio chairman.

Business Advisory Committee - This committee regulates the programme and timetable of the House. It allocates time for the transaction of legislative and other business brought before the House by the government. The Lok Sabha committee consists of 15 members, including the Speaker as its chairman. In the Rajya Sabha, it has 11 members, including the Chairman as its ex-officio chairman. 

Which of the following are regarded as the main features of the ― Rule of Law? Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Under the Doctrine of Limited Government the powers of the government are limited by various factors such as Fundamental Rights, Rule of Law, Federalism, Separation of Powers, Judicial Review, etc. People are not responsible to the government, but it is the government that is responsible to the representatives of the people elected to the legislature.

There are two similar concepts - Rule of Law and Rule by Law.

• The Rule of Law refers to the governance in which the Rule is based on the Law of the land. In other words, how the governments shall behave and conduct themselves shall depend on the Constitution.
• In the case of Rule by Law, it is the Law which is dependent on the Rule. A constitution shall be kept in its form as long as it is helping the rulers to rule the way they want to. If it is no more useless then it shall be replaced with a new law.
• In first condition, law is all powerful, and in another it is the Rule. In Rule of Law, there are certain powers and privileges which are given to individuals, no rule can inhibit those rights.

Which of the following is an artificial lake? [UPSC 2018]

Kodaikanal Lake, also known as Kodai Lake is a manmade lake located in the Kodaikanal city in Dindigul district in Tamilnadu, India. Sir Vere Henry Levinge, the then Collector of Madurai, was instrumental in creating the lake in 1863, amidst the Kodaikanal town which was developed by the British and early missionaries from the USA.

In 2017, it was in the news.

Consider the following statements:

1. Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR) is the amount that the banks have to maintain in the form of their own funds to offset any loss that bank incur if the account holders fail to repay any dues.
2. CAR is decided by each individual bank.

Which of the following Statements given above is/are correct? [UPSC 2018]

Capital Adequacy Ratio (CAR) is the ratio of a bank‘s capital in relation to its risk weighted assets and current liabilities. It is decided by central banks and bank regulators to prevent commercial banks from taking excess leverage and becoming insolvent in the process. Capital Adequacy Ratio = (Tier I + Tier II + Tier III (Capital funds)) /Risk weighted assets.

Own fund – Broadly speaking, in bank funding and capital management, 'own funds' means the bank's own capital. Own funds are a very stable source of funding, because there is either no contractual obligation to repay them, or only a limited obligation. The Capital Requirements Regulation defines a bank's own funds as the sum of its Tier 1 capital and Tier 2 capital. Thus, statement 1 is correct and statement 2 is incorrect. Option A is the most appropriate answer option.

With reference to the governance of the public sector banking in India, considering the following statements:

1. Capital infusion into public sector banks by the Government of India has steadily increased in the last decade.
2. To put the public sector banks in order, the merger of associate banks with the parent State Bank of India has been affected.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? [UPSC 2018]

Statement 1 is incorrect as Capital infusion into public sector banks by the Government of India has not steadily increased in the last decade. Capital infusion in public sector banks has steadily increased in the last decade. First statement is wrong because it is not steadily increasing, there have been falls in between. Graph Taken from Indian Express-2017-July. Last year also similar data-interpretation was asked and UPSC examiner went with the literal expression of ‘steadily increasing’ hence we’ve to go by that only and disregard the ‘cumulative amounts’ under the Indradhanush (70k crore) and EASE package (2.11 lakh crore).

Statement 2 is correct - The merger of SBI associated banks under Section 35 of the State Bank of India Act, 1955 will result in the creation of a stronger merged entity. This will minimize vulnerability to any geographic concentration risks faced by subsidiary banks. It will create improved operational efficiency and economies of scale. It will also result in improved risk management and unified treasury operations. 

Updated data as of 2019-2020 -

Meanwhile, the government has infused three tranches of capital into the banks (infused funds go to the RRBs, too through the PSBs under whom they fall) upto March 2015:

(i) ₹12,000 crore infused during 2012–13 in seven PSBs.

(ii) ₹12,517 crore infused in 2013–14 in 8 PSBs.

(iii) In 2014–15, the PSBs were recapitalised with ₹6,990 crore. This capital infusion was based on some new criteria— asset quality, efficiency and strength of the banks.

(iv) During 2015–16, the government released ₹19,950 crore to 13 PSBs (Economic Survey 2015–16).

(v) For the year 2016–17, the government has announced a sum of ₹25,000 crore for the purpose of recapitalising the PSBs (Union Budget 2016–17).

(vi) The Indradhanush scheme was launched (in 2015–16) by the Government under which the PSBs are to be infused with ₹70,000 crore by March 2019 to enable them meet the ‘global risk norms’ (i.e., Basel III norms).

(vii) The ongoing recapitalisation process of the PSBs got a big boost when the Government announced (February 2018) a hefty sum of ₹2.11 lakh crores for it. Infused into the PSBs upto October 2019, a part of it (₹1.35 lakh crores) will be mobilised through Recapitalisation Bonds while rest of it (₹76,000 crores) will be raised by the banks from market (disinvestment process) and budgetary support. This process will help the banks in meeting their capital adequacy targets also.

As per the latest Economic Survey 2019–20, by September, the capital to risk-weighted asset ratio (CRAR) of the scheduled commercial banks (SCBs) was 12.8 per cent (it was 13.9 per cent by March 2018)—largely due to an improvement among the PVBs (private sector banks). 

With reference to Indian History, who among the following is a future Buddha, yet to come to save the world? [UPSC 2018]

The universe of the Great Vehicle contains numerous Bodhisattvas, chief of whom, from the earthly point of view, is Avalokiteshwar ("The Lord Who Looks Down"), also called Padmapani ("The Lotus-Bearer") also called Lokesvara in Sanskrit ( The Lord of the World). His special attribute is compassion, and his helping hand reaches even to Avici, the deepest and most unpleasant of the Buddhist purgatories.

Another important Bodhisattva is Manjusri, whose special activity is to stimulate the understanding, and who is depicted with a naked sword in one hand, to destroy error and falsehood, and a book in the other, describing the ten paramitas, or great spiritual perfections, which are the cardinal virtues developed by Bodhisattvas.

Vajrapani, a sterner Bodhisattva, is the foe of sin and evil, and, like the god Indra, bears a thunderbolt in his hand. The gentle Maitreya, the future Buddha, is worshipped as a Bodhisattva. Also worthy of mention is Ksitigarbha, the guardian of the purgatories, who is thought of not as a fierce torturer, but rather as the governor of a model prison, doing his best to make life tolerable for his charges, and helping them to earn remission of sentence. 

Consider the following statements: Human capital formation as a concept is better explained in terms of a process which enables

1. Individuals of a country to accumulate more capital.
2. Increasing the knowledge, skills level and capacities of the people of the country.
3. Accumulation of tangible wealth.
4. Accumulation of intangible wealth.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? [UPSC 2018]

Human capital formation indicates, “the process of acquiring and increasing the number of persons who have the skills, education and experience which are critical for the economic and the political development of the country. Human capital formation is thus associated with investment in man and his development as a creative and productive resource.” Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Intangible wealth consists of factors such as the trust among people in a society, an efficient judicial system, clear property rights, effective government, and good education system etc. Human capital formation enables accumulation of intangible wealth. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

Which one of the following statements correctly describes the meaning of legal tender money? [UPSC 2018]

Legal tender is any official medium of payment recognized by law that can be used to extinguish a public or private debt, or meet a financial obligation. A creditor is obligated to accept legal tender toward repayment of a debt. Legal tender can only be issued by the national body that is authorized to do so.

Consider the following:

1. Birds
2. Dust blowing
3. Rain
4. Wind blowing

Which of the above spread plant diseases? [UPSC 2018]

Agencies like wind, water, animals, insects, mites, nematodes, birds etc. are the different methods of indirect transmissions of pathogens causing plant disease.

The term―"two-state solution" is sometimes mentioned in the news in the context of the affairs of _____. [UPSC 2018]

Two-State Solution of Israel Palestine Issue: It envisages an independent State of Palestine alongside the State of Israel west of Jordan River. The UNSC Resolution 1397 agreed in 2000 with support from the USA and becoming first UNSC resolution to agree on two-state solution.

The Partnership for Action Green Economy (PAGE), a UN mechanism to assist countries transition towards a greener and more inclusive economies, emerged at ______. [UPSC 2018]

The Partnership for Action on Green Economy (PAGE) was launched in 2013 as a response to the call at Rio+20 to support those countries wishing to embark on greener and more inclusive growth trajectories. PAGE seeks to put sustainability at the heart of economic policies and practices to advance the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development and supports nations and regions in reframing economic policies and practices around sustainability to foster economic growth, create income and jobs, reduce poverty and inequality, and strengthen the ecological foundations of their economies. PAGE brings together five UN agencies – UN Environment, International Labour Organization, UN Development Programme, UN Industrial Development Organization, and UN Institute for Training and Research – whose mandates, expertise and networks combined can offer integrated and holistic support to countries on the inclusive green economy, ensuring coherence and avoiding duplication.

In 2017, it was in news.

Increase in absolute and per capita real GNP do not connote a higher level of economic development, if _____. [UPSC 2018]

An essential aspect of development is to enable the maximum number to experience the fruits of development. Concepts of per capita income (per capita GDP or per capita NSDP) are not able to capture this aspect of development. There may be a case wherein increase in absolute and per capita GNP is reflective of growth in income of a small section of society and that majority of the population is poverty stricken and unemployed. Multi -dimensional non -monetary social indicators are better reflectors of overall economic development in the society.

The identity platform 'Aadhaar' provides open "Application Programming Interfaces (APIs)". What does it imply?

1. It is integrated into an electronic device.
2. Online authentication using iris is possible.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? [UPSC 2018]

Aadhaar Authentication is the process wherein Aadhaar number, along with other attributes, including biometrics, are submitted online to the Central Identities Data Repository for its verification and such repository verifies the correctness, or the lack thereof, on the basis of the information available with it. An authentication request is entertained by the UIDAI only upon a request sent by a requesting entity electronically in accordance with its regulations. The modes of authentication include: Demographic Authentication, one-time pin based authentication, Biometric based authentication, Multi-factor authentication. To support strong end to end security and avoid request tampering and man-in-the-middle attacks, it is essential that encryption of data happens at the time of capture on the capture device. Authentication related APIs are enabled only for valid ASAs and only for their registered static IP addresses coming through a secure private network.

With reference to the provisions made under the National Food Security Act, 2013, consider the following statements:

1. The families coming under the category of 'below poverty line (BPL)' only are eligible to receive subsidised food grains.
2. The eldest woman in a household, of age 18 years or above, shall be the head of the household for the purpose of issuance of a ration card.
3. Pregnant women and lactating mothers are entitled to a 'take-home ration' of 1600 calories per day during pregnancy and for six months thereafter

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? [UPSC 2018]

The National Food Security Act was enacted by the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution by end-December 2013. India’s most ambitious and world’s largest social welfare programme provides legal right to about 82 crore people for subsidised foodgrains—a historic initiative towards ensuring food and nutritional security.

Statement 1 is incorrect - The Act provides for coverage of upto 75% of the rural population and upto 50% of the urban population for receiving subsidized foodgrains under Targeted Public Distribution System (TPDS), thus covering about two-thirds of the population.

Statement 2 is correct - It provides that eldest woman of the household of age 18 years or above is to be the head of the household for the purpose of issuing of ration cards.

Statement 3 is incorrect - Besides meal to pregnant women and lactating mothers during pregnancy and six months after the child birth, such women will also be entitled to receive maternity benefit of not less than Rs. 6,000. 

Which of the following is/are the aim/aims of ― "Digital India Plan" of the Government of India?

Select the correct answer using the code given below: [UPSC 2018]

1. Formation of India‘s own Internet companies like China did.
2. Establish a policy framework to encourage overseas multinational corporations that collect Big Data to build their last data centres within our national geographical boundaries.
3. Connect many of our villages to the Internet and bring Wi-Fi to many of our schools, public places and major tourist centres.

To transform the entire ecosystem of public services through the use of information technology, the Government of India has launched the Digital India programme with the vision to transform India into a digitally empowered society and knowledge economy. Under the Digital India Plan, NII would integrate the network and cloud infrastructure in the country to provide high-speed connectivity and cloud platform to various government departments up to the panchayat level. Cities with a population of over 1 million and tourist centres would be provided with public wi-fi hotspots to promote digital cities. The scheme would be implemented by the DoT and Ministry of Urban Development (MoUD). Hence, only statement 3 is correct.

Despite being a high saving economy, capital formation may not result in significant increase in output due to ____. [UPSC 2018]

Capital formation means increasing the stock of real capital in a country. In other words, capital formation involves making of more capital goods such as machines, tools, factories, transport equipment, materials, electricity, etc., which are all used for future production of goods. For making additions to the stock of Capital, saving and investment are essential. Capital output ratio is the amount of capital needed to produce one unit of output.

For example, suppose that investment in an economy, investment is 32% (of GDP), and the economic growth corresponding to this level of investment is 8%. Here, a Rs 32 investment produces an output of Rs 8. Capital output ratio is 32/8 or 4. In other words, to produce one unit of output, 4 unit of capital is needed. Hence, if the capital-output ratio is high, there will not be significant increase in output despite high savings and investment.

Consider the following statements:

1. The Reserve Bank of India manages and services Government of India Securities but not any State Government Securities.
2. Treasury bills are issued by the Government of India and there are no treasury bills issued by the State Governments.
3. Treasury bills offers are issued at a discount from the par value.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? [UPSC 2018]

The Reserve Bank of India manages public debt and issues Indian currency denominated loans on behalf of the central and the state governments under the powers derived from the Reserve Bank of India Act. The RBI is the debt manager for both the Central Government and the State Governments. RBI manages the debt of state governments on the basis of separate agreements. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

Treasury bills or T-bills, which are money market instruments, are short term debt instruments issued by the Government of India and are presently issued in three tenors, namely, 91 day, 182 day and 364 day. Treasury bills are zero coupon securities and pay no interest. They are issued at a discount and redeemed at the face value at maturity. For example, a 91 day Treasury bill of ₹100/- (face value) may be issued at say ₹ 98.20, that is, at a discount of say, ₹1.80 and would be redeemed at the face value of ₹100/-. The return to the investors is the difference between the maturity value or the face value (that is ₹100). Hence, statement 2 and 3 are also correct.

Which one of the following links all the ATMs in India? [UPSC 2018]

National Financial Switch (NFS) is the largest network of shared automated teller machines (ATMs) in India. It was designed, developed and deployed by the Institute for Development and Research in Banking Technology (IDRBT) in 2004, with the goal of inter-connecting the ATMs in the country and facilitating convenience banking. It is run by the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI).

NFS has established a strong and sustainable operational model with in-house capabilities and today can be compared at par with other major and well established switch networks. The operational functions and services are at par with most of the global ATM networks.

Consider the following Statements. Which of the given statement is/ are correct? [UPSC 2018]

1. The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Review Committee Report has recommended a debt to GDP ratio of 60% for the general (combined) Government by 2023, comprising 40% for the Central government and 20% for the State Government.
2. The Central Government has domestic liabilities of 21% of GDP as compared to 49% of GDP of the State Governments.
3. As per the Constitution of India, it is mandatory for the State to take Central government‘s consent for raising any loans if the former owes any liabilities to the latter.

Statement 1 is correct - The combined debt-to-GDP ratio of the centre and states should be brought down to 60 per cent by 2023 (comprising of 40 per cent for the Centre and 20% for States) as against the existing 49.4 per cent, and 21 per cent respectively.

Statement 2 is incorrect - The Union government, which has larger domestic liabilities of 49.23% of GDP as compared to that of the States (21% of GDP).

Statement 3 is correct - Under Article 293, A State may not without the consent of the Government of India raise any loan if there is still outstanding any part of a loan which has been made to the State by the Government of India or by its predecessor Government, or in respect of which a guarantee has been given by the Government of India or by its predecessor Government.

India enacted The Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration and Protection) Act, 1999 in order to comply with the obligations to ____. [UPSC 2018]

Geographical Indications of Goods are defined as that aspect of industrial property which refer to the geographical indication referring to a country or to a place situated therein as being the country or place of origin of that product. Typically, such a name conveys an assurance of quality and distinctiveness which is essentially attributable to the fact of its origin in that defined geographical locality, region or country. Under Articles 1 (2) and 10 of the Paris Convention for the Protection of Industrial Property, geographical indications are covered as an element of IPRs.

They are also covered under Articles 22 to 24 of the Trade Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPS) Agreement, which was part of the Agreements concluding the Uruguay Round of GATT negotiations. India, as a member of the World Trade Organization (WTO), enacted the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration & Protection) Act, 1999 has come into force with effect from 15th September 2003.

Which of the following best describes the term ― Merchant Discount Rate‖ sometimes seen in news? [UPSC 2018]

Merchant Discount Rate is a fee charged from a merchant by a bank for accepting payments from customers through credit and debit cards in their establishments. It compensates the card issuing bank, the lender which puts the PoS terminal and payment gateways such as Mastercard or Visa for their services. MDR charges are usually shared in pre-agreed proportion between the bank and a merchant and is expressed in percentage of transaction amount.

With reference to India‘s decision to levy an equalization tax of 6% on online advertisement services offered by non resident entities, which of the following statement is/are correct?

Select the correct answer using the code given below: [UPSC 2018]

Statements 1 and 2 are not correct: Equalisation Levy was introduced in India in 2016, with the intention of taxing the digital transactions i.e. the income accruing to foreign e-commerce companies from India. It is aimed at taxing business to business transactions. As the levy was not introduced as part of the Income Tax Act but as a separate legislation under the Finance Bill, global firms that offer such services in India cannot claim a tax credit in their home country under the double taxation avoidance agreements.

Consider the following:

1. Areca nut
2. Barley
3. Coffee
4. Finger millet
5. Groundnut
6. Sesamum
7. Turmeric

The Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs has announced the Minimum Support Price for which of the above? [UPSC 2018]

The MSP is fixed on the recommendations of the Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP). The CACP is a statutory body and submits separate reports recommending prices for Kharif and Rabi seasons.

Initially, MSP covered paddy, rice, wheat, jowar, bajra, maize, ragi (Finger Millet), barley, gram, tur, moong, urad, sugarcane, groundnut, soybean, sunflower seed, rapeseed and mustard, cotton, jute and tobacco. From 1994-95 onwards, Nigerseed and Sesame were included under MSP Scheme of CACP, in addition to the edible oilseeds already covered by the Commission. Similarly, during 2001-2002, the government enhanced the terms of reference of the Commission by including lentil (masur).

Commencing with ‘wheat’ for the 1966–67, currently (2019) the MSPs are announced for 23 commodities including seven cereals (paddy, wheat, barley, jowar, bajra, maize and ragi); five pulses (gram, arhar/tur, moong, urad and lentil); eight oilseeds (groundnut, rapeseed/mustard, toria, soyabean, sunflower seed, sesamum, safflower seed and nigerseed); copra, raw cotton and raw jute.

Consider the following statements:

1. The Earth‘s magnetic fields have reversed every few hundred thousand years.
2. When the Earth was created more than 4000 million years ago, there was 54% oxygen and no carbon dioxide.
3. When living organism originated, they modified the early atmosphere of the Earth.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? [UPSC 2018]

Statement 1 is correct - Earth's magnetic field has flipped its polarity many times over the millennia. Magnetic Reversals are the rule, not the exception. Earth has settled in the last 20 million years into a pattern of a magnetic pole reversal about every 200,000 to 300,000 years.

Statement 2 is not correct - When Earth formed 4.6 billion years ago, it had almost no atmosphere. As Earth cooled, an atmosphere formed mainly from gases spewed from volcanoes. It included hydrogen sulfide, methane, and 10 to 200 times as much carbon dioxide as today’s atmosphere.

Statement 3 is correct - Living organisms include plants and microbes. Life started to have a major impact on the environment once photosynthetic organisms evolved. While photosynthetic life reduced the carbon dioxide content of the atmosphere, it also started to produce oxygen. So, when living beings originated, they did modify the atmosphere.

With reference to the Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System (IRNSS), consider the following statements:

1. IRNSS has three satellites in geostationary and four satellites in geosynchronous orbits.
2. Geosynchronous covers entire India and about 5500 sq. Km beyond its border.
3. India will have its own satellite navigation system with full global coverage by the middle of 2019.

Which of the following statements given above is/are correct? [UPSC 2018]

Statement 1 is correct - The space segment consists of the IRNSS constellation of seven satellites, NavIC. Three satellites are located in suitable orbital slots in the geostationary orbit and the remaining four are located in geosynchronous orbits with the required inclination and equatorial crossings in two different planes.

Statement 2 is not correct - IRNSS is an independent regional navigation satellite system being developed by India. It is designed to provide accurate position information service to users in India as well as the region extending up to 1500 km from its boundary, which is its primary service area. An Extended Service Area lies between primary service area and area enclosed by the rectangle from Latitude 30 deg South to 50 deg North, Longitude 30 deg East to 130 deg East.

Statement 3 is not correct - India will not have its own satellite navigation system with full global coverage by the middle of 2019.

With reference to the cultural history of India, consider the following statements:

1. Most of the Tyagaraja Kritis are devotional songs in praise of Lord Krishna.
2. Tyagaraja created several new ragas.
3. Annamacharya and Tyagaraja are contemporaries.
4. Annamacharyakirtanas are devotional songs in praise of Lord Venkateshwara

Which of the statement is given above are correct? [UPSC 2018]

Statement 1 is not correct - Most of Tyagaraja’s songs were in praise of Rama, who, like Krishna, is believed to be an incarnation of the god Vishnu.

Statement 2 is correct - Tyagaraja is credited with various musical innovations, including the use of a structured variation of musical lines within the performance, a practice that may have been derived from improvisatory techniques.

Statement 3 is not correct - Tyagaraja belonged to the 18th century and Annamacharya to the 15th century.

Statement 4 is correct - Annamācārya was a 15th-century Hindu saint and is the earliest known Indian musician to compose songs called sankirtanas in praise of the god Venkateswara, a form of Vishnu.

With reference to the religious practices in India, the ―'Sthanakvasi' sect belongs to_________. [UPSC 2018]

Sthānakavāsī is a sect of Śvētāmbara Jainism founded by a merchant named Lavaji in 1653 AD. It believes that idol worship is not essential in the path of soul purification and attainment of Nirvana/Moksha. The sect is essentially a reformation of the one founded on teachings of Lonka, a fifteenth-century Jain reformer. Sthānakavāsins accept thirty-two of the Jain Agamas, the Śvētāmbara canon.

With reference to the cultural history of India, consider the following statements:

1. White marble was used in making Buland Darwaza and Khankah at Fatehpur Sikri.
2. Red Sandstone and marble were used in making Bara Imambara and Rumi Darwaza in Lucknow.

Which of the following statements given above is/are correct? [UPSC 2018]

Buland Darwaza at Fatehpur Sikri is the most iconic architectural accomplishment of Akbar’s reign. It incorporates almost all the essential features of Akbar’s architectural traditions: red sandstone, stone carvings, relief by inserting white marble, etc. This monumental gate, however, was probably less intended to commemorate a military victory than to underscore Akbar’s links with the Chishti order. Its surface is covered by marble slabs inscribed with Quranic verses promising paradise to true believers, appropriate for the entrance into a Khankah, a complex intended for meditation and devotion.

AsafiImambara, or Bara Imambara, of Lucknow, was built to give employment and revenue to the public. Resources were strained, a peak had been reached in architectural style, and a certain decadence had crept in. To overcome these, the Nawabs used a more economical style in architecture, which also gave a touch of lightness to the buildings. Instead of stones and marble, brick and lime were used.Stucco ornamentation (gajkari) was used to decorate the monuments, giving it a deep relief effect even on flat walls. Mother of pearl and shells deposited in lake beds were used in the stucco ornamentation to give a shine finer than marble. The local masons cleverly used the brick, with its small size and thickness, to form remarkably fine details on the wall and column surfaces. It’s a testimony to their skill that they could adapt lowly material to such wonderful effect: balusters were imitated in clay supported on iron rods. Similarly, pottery was used for roof finials and ornaments.

This skill can be seen in the delicately built Rumi Darwaza that was the main gateway to the Bara Imambara. It was called so because the design of the structure bears resemblance to an ancient gateway at Constantinople. It’s also called the “Turkish Gateway”. The word Rumi means Roman, and the name was probably given due to the gateway’s design having traces of Roman architecture.

Therefore statement 1 is correct.

In which of the following area can GPS technology be used?

Select the correct answer using the code given below: [UPSC 2018]

Global positioning system applications generally fall into 5 major categories:

1. Location - determining a position

2. Navigation - getting from one location to another

3. Tracking - monitoring object or personal movement

4. Mapping - creating maps of the world

5. Timing - bringing precise timing to the world.

GPS's accurate time facilitates everyday activities such as banking, mobile phone operations and even the control power grids by allowing well-synchronized hand-off switching.

Which of the following leaf modifications occur(s) in the desert areas to inhibit water loss?

Select the correct answer using the code given below: [UPSC 2018]

Desert plants lose very little water through transpiration. The leaves in desert plants are either absent, very small, or they are present in the shape of spines. This helps in reducing the loss of water from the leaves through transpiration. The leaf-like structure you see in a cactus is, in fact, its stem. Photosynthesis in these plants is usually carried out by the stems. The stem is also covered with a thick waxy layer, which helps to retain water. Most desert plants have roots that go very deep into the soil for absorbing water.

Consider the following statements;

1. The Barren Island volcano is an active volcano located in the Indian territory.
2. Barren Island lies about 140 km east of Great Nicobar.
3. The last time the Barren Island volcano erupted was in 1991 and it has remained inactive since then.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?  [UPSC 2018]

Barren Island is India’s only active volcano. It is located 140kms to the east of Port Blair (lies in South Andaman) while Great Nicobar is the southernmost region of Andaman & Nicobar and lies further south of Port Blair. The Barren Island volcano had been lying dormant for more than 150 years until it saw a major eruption in 1991. Since then it has shown intermittent activity, including eruptions in 1995, 2005 and 2017.

Consider the following statements:

1. In India, State Governments do not have the power to auction non-coal mines.
2. Andhra Pradesh and Jharkhand do not have gold mines.
3. Rajasthan has iron ore mines.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? [UPSC 2018]

Unlike coal, the auction of mining licences of non-coal minerals is conducted by the respective state governments. Iron ore mines are located in Bhilwara in Rajasthan.

India has gold deposits spread across several states including Andhra Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Karnataka, Kerala, Madhya Pradesh, Tamil Nadu and Rajasthan. Governments of both Jharkhand and Andhra Pradesh have auctioned several gold mines in recent years.

Which of the following is/are the possible consequences of heavy sand mining in riverbeds?

Select the correct answer using the code below: [UPSC 2018]

Excessive instream sand-and-gravel mining causes the degradation of rivers. Instream mining lowers the stream bottom, which may lead to bank erosion. Depletion of sand in the streambed and along coastal areas causes the deepening of rivers and estuaries, and the enlargement of river mouths and coastal inlets. It may also lead to saline -water intrusion from the nearby sea. The effect of mining is compounded by the effect of sea-level rise. Any volume of sand exported from streambeds and coastal areas is a loss to the system. Excessive instream sand mining is a threat to bridges, river banks and nearby structures.

Sand mining also affects the adjoining groundwater system and the uses that local people make of the river. Sand aquifer helps in recharging the water table and sand mining causes the sinking of water tables in the nearby areas, drops leaving the drinking water wells on the embankments of these rivers dry. Turbidity increases at the mining site.

Consider the following pairs: Towns sometimes mentioned in news-Country

1. Aleppo - Syria
2. Kirkuk - Yemen
3. Mosul - Palestine
4. Mazar-i-sharif - Afghanistan

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched? [UPSC 2018]

Aleppo is in Syria.

Kirkuk and Mosul are in Iraq while Majar - i - Sharif is in Afghanistan.

These cities have been in news in 2017-18 due to war and violence.

In the Federation established by The Government of India Act of 1935, residuary power was given to the _____. [UPSC 2018]

The Government of India Act of 1935 envisaged an all-India federation consisting of eleven Governor’s provinces, six Chief Commissioner’s provinces, and the such Indian States as would agree to join the federation. The governmental subjects were divided into three Lists i.e. Federal, Provincial and Concurrent.

The provincial legislatures were given exclusive power to legislate with respect to matters in the Provincial List. The federal legislature had the exclusive power to make law on matters in the Federal List. The federal and the provincial legislatures had concurrent jurisdiction with respect to matters in the Concurrent List. In case of conflict between a provincial law and a federal law on a matter enumerated in the Concurrent List, the latter was to prevail, and the former would, to the extent of the repugnancy be void. Residuary powers were vested in the Governor-General, who could, in his discretion, assign any such power by public notification to the federal legislature or the provincial legislature.

The well-known painting ―Bani Thani― belongs to the: [UPSC 2018]

Bani Thani is an Indian miniature painting painted by Nihal Chand from the Marwar school of Kishangarh. It portrays a woman who is elegant and graceful. The painting's subject, Bani Thani, was a singer and poet in Kishangarh in the time of king Sawant Singh (1748–1764). She has been compared to the Mona Lisa.

With reference to solar power production in India, consider the following statements:

1. India is the largest in the world in the manufacture of silicon wafers used in photovoltaic units.
2. The solar power tariffs are determined by the Solar Energy Corporation of India.

Which of the following statements given above is/are correct?[UPSC 2018]

Statement 1 is not correct - Manufacture of solar panels (also called modules) starts with polysilicon, which is made from silicon. Polysilicon is made into ingots, which are cut into wafers. Cells are made with wafers and a string of cells is a module. Today, only modules and cells are made in India, with imported material. At present, the only incentives available for manufacturing these is the Modified-Special Incentive Package Scheme, which is available to all electronic goods manufacturers and implemented by the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology, but there have been few takers for the scheme.

Statement 2 is not correct - "Solar Energy Corporation of India Ltd" (SECI) is a CPSU under the administrative control of the Ministry of New and Renewable Energy (MNRE). It aims to become the leader in the development of large scale solar installations, solar plants and solar parks and to promote and commercialize the use of solar energy to reach the remotest corner of India. It also explores new technologies and their deployment to harness solar energy. Solar Power tariffs are determined either through the regulations of Central Electricity Regulatory Commission/State Electricity Regulatory Commission or through competitive bidding.

The term "sixth mass extinction/sixth extinction" is often mentioned in the news in the context of the discussion of ________. [UPSC 2018]

Scientists have warned that the sixth mass extinction of life on Earth is unfolding more quickly than feared. Wildlife is dying out due to habitat destruction, overhunting, toxic pollution, invasion by alien species and climate change. The ultimate cause of all of these factors is human overpopulation and continued population growth and overconsumption.

How is the National Green Tribunal (NGT) different from the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)?

1. the NGT has been established by an Act and CPCB has been created by executive order of the government.
2. the NGT provides environmental justice and helps to reduce the burden of litigation in the High Courts whereas the CPCB promotes the cleanliness of streams and wells, aims to improve the quality of air in the country.

Which of the statement given above is/are correct? [UPSC 2018]

The National Green Tribunal (NGT) is a statutory body that was established in 2010 by the National Green Tribunal Act. It was set up to handle cases and speed up the cases related to environmental issues. The Tribunal shall not be bound by the procedure laid down under the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908, but shall be guided by principles of natural justice. The Tribunal's dedicated jurisdiction in environmental matters shall provide speedy environmental justice and help reduce the burden of litigation in the higher courts. The Tribunal is mandated to make and endeavour for disposal of applications or appeals finally within 6 months of the filing of the same. Initially, the NGT is proposed to be set up at five places of sittings and will follow a circuit procedure for making itself more accessible. New Delhi is the Principal Place of Sitting of the Tribunal and Bhopal, Pune, Kolkata and Chennai shall be the other 4 places of sitting of the Tribunal.

The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB), the statutory organisation, was constituted in September 1974 under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974. Further, CPCB was entrusted with the powers and functions under the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981. It serves as a field formation and also provides technical services to the Ministry of Environment and Forests of the provisions of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986. Principal Functions of the CPCB, as spelt out in the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974, and the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981, (i) to promote cleanliness of streams and wells in different areas of the States by prevention, control and abatement of water pollution, and (ii) to improve the quality of air and to prevent, control or abate air pollution in the country.

It was in news 2017 - The Union government modified the process of appointments to the National Green Tribunal, The new rules do away with a condition that the NGT can only be headed by a former Supreme Court judge or the chief justice of a high court, and takes away the judiciary’s control on the process to appoint the tribunal’s members. constitutional experts say such a move chip away at the independence of these institutions and weaken the country’s environmental watchdog. In an order issued on February 9, 2018, the Supreme Court has stayed the Central Tribunal, Appellate Tribunal and other Authorities (Qualifications, Experience and other Conditions of Service of Members) Rules, 2017 (i.e., the Tribunal Rules) which gives the central government complete control over the appointment of tribunal members, including the National Green Tribunal (NGT). Henceforth, the terms and conditions for appointment and termination of NGT members will be governed by the National Green Tribunal Act 2010.

The National Green Tribunal slammed the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) over the inspection of paper units in Uttar Pradesh, saying its conduct made it difficult to trust the pollution monitoring body.

"Momentum for Change: Climate Neutral Now" is an initiative launched by _____________. [UPSC 2018]

The UNFCCC secretariat launched its Climate Neutral Now initiative in 2015. The following year, the secretariat launched a new pillar under its Momentum for Change initiative focused on Climate Neutral Now, as part of larger efforts to showcase successful climate action around the world.

India ratified the Paris Agreement to the UNFCCC in 2016. The action plan for implementation of the Paris Agreement and its components is being developed.

Which of the following statements best describes "carbon fertilization"? [UPSC 2018]

Anthropogenic emissions add more carbon dioxide to the atmosphere. Forests worldwide are using it to grow faster, reducing the amount of CO₂ that stays in the atmosphere. This effect is called carbon fertilization. The carbon fertilization effect suggests that the increase of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere increases the rate of photosynthesis in plants. One related trend may be what has been termed "Arctic greening". Scientists have been finding, that as northern portions of the planet warm up even as total atmospheric carbon dioxide increases, there‘s been an increase in plant growth in these regions. Researchers report that the CO2 levels expected in the second half of this century will likely reduce the levels of zinc, iron, and protein in wheat, rice, peas, and soybeans.

With reference to organic farming in India, consider the following statements:

1. 'The National Programme for Organic Production (NPOP)' is operated under the guidelines and directions of the Union Ministry of Rural Development.
2. 'The Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority' (APEDA) functions as the Secretariat for the implementation of NPOP.
3. Sikkim has become India‘s first fully organic State.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? [UPSC 2018]

Ministry of Commerce has implemented the National Programme for Organic Production (NPOP) since 2001. Agricultural and Processed Food Products Export Development Authority (APEDA) functions as the Secretariat for the implementation of the NPOP. Sikkim has become India’s first fully organic state, in 2016, by implementing organic practices on around 75,000 hectares of agricultural land.

In the Indian context, what is the implication of ratifying the 'Additional Protocol' with the 'International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)'?

India has ratified the Additional Protocol, a commitment given under India-U.S. nuclear deal by the previous dispensation to grant greater ease to International Atomic Energy Agency to monitor India’s civilian atomic programme. The IAEA had in March 2009 approved an additional protocol to India’s safeguards agreement consequent to a pact reached with the agency the previous year to place its civilian nuclear facilities under IAEA safeguards. That agreement had paved the way for the 45-member Nuclear Suppliers Group to grant Indiaspecific waiver for it to have commercial relations with other countries in the civilian atomic field.

In news - Is seen the context of India US nuclear deal and India's bid for NSG membership.

When the alarm of your smartphone rings in the morning, you wake up and tap it to stop the alarm which causes your geyser to be switched on automatically. The smart mirror in your bathroom shows the day‘s weather and also indicates the level of water in your overhead tank. After you take some groceries from your refrigerator for making breakfast, it recognises the shortage of stock in it and places an order for the supply of fresh grocery items. When you step out of your house and lock the door, all lights, fans, geysers and AC machines get switched off automatically. On your way to the office, your car warns you about traffic congestion ahead and suggests an alternative route, and if you are late for a meeting, it sends a message to your office accordingly. In the context of emerging communication technologies, which one of the following terms best applies to the above scenario? [UPSC 2018]

The Internet of Things, or IoT, refers to billions of physical devices around the world that are now connected to the internet, collecting and sharing data. This can be anything from cellphones, coffee makers, washing machines, headphones, lamps, wearable devices and almost anything else you can think of.

There are many examples of what this might look like or what the potential value might be. Say for example you are on your way to a meeting; your car could have access to your calendar and already know the best route to take. If the traffic is heavy your car might send a text to the other party notifying them that you will be late. What if your alarm clock wakes up you at 6 a.m. and then notifies your coffee maker to start brewing coffee for you?

What is an example of an Internet of Things device? A lightbulb that can be switched on using a smartphone app is an IoT device, as is a motion sensor or a smart thermostat in your office or a connected streetlight. An IoT device could be as fluffy as a child's toy or as serious as a driverless truck. At an even bigger scale, smart cities projects are filling entire regions with sensors to help us understand and control the environment.

Consider the following statements:

1. The quality of imported edible oil is more than the domestic production of edible oils in the last five years.
2. The Government does not impose any customs duty on all the imported edible oils as a special case.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? [UPSC 2018]

India’s Vegetable Oil imports for the year 2016-17 (November 2016 to October 2017) is reported at 15.44 million tons compared to 14.74 million tons last year (2015-16) and 10.68 million tons in 2012-13, according to Solvent Extractors’ Association of India. The Vegetable Oil import, which includes edible oil and non-edible oil, has jumped by 45% in the last 5 years.

Import of edible oil has sharply increased in the last few years due to stagnant Oilseed production and rising demand in the country. India’s dependence on imported oil has increased to 70% of its requirements.

Customs duty on edible oils -As India’s edible oil imports surge during the past six months, depressing prices of domestically produced mustard, soybean and other soft oils and in turn cutting returns of farmers and processors, the industry has demanded a substantial increase in import duty to curtail imports. The duty on two major edible oils, namely crude sunflower seed oil and crude canola/rapeseed/mustard is only 25 per cent, while crude soyabean oil attracts 30 per cent duty.

Which one of the following foreign travellers elaborately discussed about diamonds and diamond mines of India? [UPSC 2018]

The Hope Diamond said to be mined in the Kollur mines in Andhra Pradesh and acquired by French gem merchant, Jean-Baptiste Tavernier, in 1666. It is unclear as to how the merchant got the diamond, but according to the Smithsonian, Tavernier purchased the 112 3/16 carat diamond who then sold it to French King Louis XIV of France.

Which of the following has/have shrunk immensely/dried up in the recent past due to human activities?

1. Aral Sea
2. Black Sea
3. Lake Baikal

Select the correct answer using the code given below: [UPSC 2018]

As per NASA, over the last 50 years, Aral Sea has shrunk by about 75% of its original size mainly because of water diversion for agricultural usages in surrounding areas. Also from a depth of 68 meters in the 1960s, today it stands at less than 10 meters. In Lake Baikal, the water level has gone below the critical mark of 456m eleven times since 1962. Thus, while the Aral Sea has dried up immensely, Lake Baikal shows more of a fluctuating regime and shrinkage is not comparable to that of the Aral Sea.

With reference to the 'Global Alliance for Climate-Smart Agriculture (GACSA)', which of the following statements is/are correct? [UPSC 2018]

The term Climate-Smart Agriculture was first coined by Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO) in 2010 as a means to attract climate finance to its agricultural programmes in Africa. GACSA is an inclusive, voluntary and action-oriented multi-stakeholder platform on Climate-Smart Agriculture (CSA). GACSA was launched in September 2014 in the margins of the UN Climate Summit. The Alliance held its inaugural Annual Forum in December 2014, during which the 2015 Inception Year Work Plan was endorsed.

The concept of Climate-Smart Agriculture (CSA) was originally developed by FAO and officially presented and at the Hague Conference on Agriculture, Food Security and Climate Change in 2010, through the paper "Climate - Smart Agriculture: Policies, Practices and Financing for Food Security, Adaptation and Mitigation". They have been established based on bottom-up, inclusive, independent and voluntary processes, with specific objectives, functioning and institutional setting. The emergence of CSA alliances and platforms worldwide is a positive and strong signal to the international community on the willingness of all stakeholders, at various levels of action, to tackle the climate challenges in the agricultural sectors, based on joint efforts and context-specific approaches.

The GACSA alliance is made up of a diverse set of members that includes governments, NGOs, intergovernmental organizations (including UN and the African Union Commission), research/extension/education organizations, farmer organizations, financing institutions and the private sector. Key donor organisations engaging with GACSA include the governments of Canada, France, Japan, Netherlands, Norway, Switzerland, the United Kingdom and the United States of America. Though some of the Indian NGOs are its member, there is not enough evidence of India being instrumental in the creation of GACSA.

With reference to agriculture soils consider the following statements:

1. The high content of organic matter drastically reduces its water holding capacity.
2. Soil does not play role in the sulphur cycle.
3. Irrigation over a period of time can contribute to the salinization of some agricultural lands.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? [UPSC 2018]

Organic matter affects both the chemical and physical properties of the soil and its overall health. Properties influenced by organic matter include:

soil structure;

moisture holding capacity;

diversity and activity of soil organisms, both those that are beneficial and harmful to crop production; and

nutrient availability.

Increased levels of organic matter and associated soil fauna lead to greater pore space with the immediate result that water infiltrates more readily and can be held in the soil. The improved pore space is a consequence of the bioturbating activities of earthworms and other macro-organisms and channels left in the soil by decayed plant roots.

Sulfur is one of three nutrients that are cycled between the soil, plant matter and the atmosphere. The sulfur cycle describes the movement of sulfur through the atmosphere, mineral and organic forms, and through living things. Although sulfur is primarily found in sedimentary rocks, it is particularly important to living things because it is a component of many proteins. Sulfur is released by weathering of rocks and minerals. Water, temperature and chemical reactions break down minerals releasing their component elements. Once the sulfur is exposed to the air, it combines with oxygen and becomes sulfate (SO4). Plants and microbes take up sulfate and convert it into organic compounds. As animals consume plants, the sulfur is moved through the food chain and released when organisms and plants die and decompose.

Primary salinization occurs naturally where the soil parent material is rich in soluble salts, or in the presence of a shallow saline groundwater table. In arid and semiarid regions, where rainfall is insufficient to leach soluble salts from the soil, or where drainage is restricted, soils with high concentrations of salts (“salt-affected soils”) may be formed. Several geochemical processes can also result in salt-affected soil formation. When an excess of sodium is involved in the salinization process this is referred to as sodification. Secondary salinization occurs when significant amounts of water are provided by irrigation, with no adequate provision of drainage for the leaching and removal of salts, resulting in the soils becoming salty and unproductive. Salt-affected soils reduce both the ability of crops to take up water and the availability of micronutrients. They also concentrate ions toxic to plants and may degrade the soil structure.

Consider the following statements:

1. Most of the world‘s coral reefs are in tropical waters.
2. More than one-third of the world‘s coral reefs are located in the territories of Australia, Indonesia and the Philippines.
3. Coral reefs host far more number of animal phyla than those hosted by tropical rainforests.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? [UPSC 2018]

Most coral reefs are located in tropical shallow waters less than 50 meters deep, in the western regions of the Indian Ocean, Pacific Ocean and Greater Caribbean. Global distribution of coralsAustralia-17% Indonesia-16% Philippines-9% So, Australia, Indonesia and Philippines together host more than one-third of the world’s corals. 32 of the 34 recognised animal Phyla are found on coral reefs compared to only 9 Phyla in tropical rainforests. 

With reference to the circumstances in Indian agriculture, the concept of "Conservation Agriculture" assumes significance. Which of the following fall under the Conservation Agriculture?

1. Avoiding monoculture practices.
2. Adopting minimum tillage.
3. Avoiding the cultivation of plantation crops.
4. Using crop residues to cover the soil surface.
5. Adopting spatial and temporal crop sequencing/crop rotations.

Select the correct answer using the code given below: [UPSC 2018]

Conservation Agriculture is a set of soil management practices that minimize the disruption of the soil's structure, composition and natural biodiversity. Despite high variability in the types of crops grown and specific management regimes, all forms of conservation agriculture share three core principles. These include:

1. maintenance of permanent or semi-permanent soil cover (using either a previous crop residue or specifically growing a cover crop for this purpose);
2. minimum soil disturbance through tillage (just enough to get the seed into the ground);
3. regular crop rotations to help combat the various biotic constraints;

CA also uses or promotes where possible or needed various management practices listed below:

• utilization of green manures/cover crops (GMCC's) to produce the residue cover;
• no burning of crop residues;
• integrated disease and pest management;
• controlled/limited human and mechanical traffic over agricultural soils.

When these CA practices are used by farmers one of the major environmental benefits is a reduction in fossil fuel use and greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions. But they also reduce the power/energy needs of farmers who use manual or animal-powered systems.

Consider the following statements:

1. The definition of "Critical Wildlife Habitat" is incorporated in the Forest Rights Act, 2006.
2. For the first time in India, Baigas have been given Habitat Rights.
3. Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change officially decides and declares Habitat Rights for Primitive and Vulnerable Tribal Groups is any part of India

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? [UPSC 2018]

Statement 1 is correct - The phrase ‘critical wildlife habitat’ is defined only in the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006.

Statement 2 is correct - In a bid to undo historical injustice meted out to primitive tribal communities living in central India, the government of Madhya Pradesh, for the first time, recognised the habitat rights of seven villages in Dindori district, mostly inhabited by the Baigas.

Statement 3 is not correct - Under the act, the District Level Committee shall ensure that Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups receive habitat rights, in consultation with the concerned traditional institutions of Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups and their claims for habitat rights are filed before the concerned Gram Sabhas.

With reference to the Genetically Modified mustard (GM Mustard) developed in India, consider the following statements:

1. GM Mustard has the genes of the soil bacterium that give the plant the property of pest-resistance to a wide variety of pests.
2. GM Mustard has the genes that allow the plant cross-pollination and hybridization.
3. GM mustard has been developed jointly by the IARI and Punjab Agricultural University.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? [UPSC 2018]

Statement 1 is not correct and statement 2 is correct - According to the developers, the GM mustard uses a system of genes from a soil bacterium that makes the plant better suited to hybridisation than current methods.

Statement 3 is not correct - The GM mustard was developed by Delhi University-based Centre for Genetic Manipulation of Crop Plants (CGMCP) under the leadership of Deepak Pental, a former vice-chancellor of the university.

Consider the following items:

1. Cereal grains hulled.
2. Chicken eggs cooked.
3. Fish processed and canned.
4. Newspapers containing advertising material.

Which of the above items is/are exempted under GST (Goods and Services Tax)? [UPSC 2018]

The Goods and Services Tax (GST) in India was implemented on July 1, 2017. While cereals, eggs, fish etc. are exempted from GST, the question mentions 'cooked' and 'processed' which in all likelihood will be available at restaurants and factories. These are therefore not exempted from the purview of GST. With reference to newspapers containing advertisements, government has recently published a clarification that these will be taxed under GST. The newspaper would have to pay 5 per cent GST on the revenue earned from space selling but can avail of input tax credit for the tax paid by the advertisement agency on commission received.

As of September 2020, the items exempted from GST is given in the chart.

With the reference to the Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana, consider the following statements :

1. It is flagship scheme of the Ministry of Labour and Employment.
2. It, among other things, will also impart training in soft skills, entrepreneurship, financial and Digital Literacy.
3. It aims to align the competencies of the unregulated workforce of the country to the National Skill Qualification Framework.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? [UPSC 2018]

Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY) is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Skill Development & Entrepreneurship (MSDE) implemented by National Skill Development Corporation. The objective of this Skill Certification Scheme is to enable a large number of Indian youth to take up industry-relevant skill training that will help them in securing a better livelihood. Individuals with prior learning experience or skills will also be assessed and certified under Recognition of Prior Learning (RPL).

The Short Term Training imparted at PMKVY Training Centres (TCs) is expected to benefit candidates of Indian nationality who are either school/college dropouts or unemployed. Apart from providing training according to the National Skills Qualification Framework (NSQF), TCs shall also impart training in Soft Skills, Entrepreneurship, Financial and Digital Literacy.

In which one of the following states is Pakhui Wildlife Sanctuary located? [UPSC 2018]

Pakhui is a Wildlife Sanctuary and a dedicated Tiger Reserve (also known as the Pakke Tiger Reserve) in the district of East Kameng in Arunachal Pradesh, India. It has an area of over 860 square kilometres and is bordered by the Kameng River and Pakke River, which are important sources of water for the animals and the irrigation of the vegetation. The Pakhui reserve is neighbour to the Nameri Tiger reserve in Assam, making this area a true treasure trove in terms of these spectacular animals. This area was first declared the Pakke Reserve Forest in July of 1966. Eleven years later, it was named the Camo Sanctuary. Then, in 2002, it was formally christened Pakhui Wildlife Sanctuary and Pakke Tiger Reserve.

As per the NSSO 70th Round "Situation Assessment Survey of Agricultural Households", consider the following statements:

1. Rajasthan has the highest percentage share of agricultural households among its rural households.
2. Out of the total agricultural households in the country, a little over 60 percentage belongs to OBCs.
3. In Kerala, a little over 60 percent agricultural households reported to have maximum income from sources other than agricultural activities.

Which of the statement given above is/ are correct? [UPSC 2018]

Statement 1 is correct - Among the major States, Rajasthan had highest percentage of agricultural households (78.4 percent) among its rural households followed by Uttar Pradesh (74.8 percent) and Madhya Pradesh (70.8 percent). Kerala had the least percentage share of agricultural households (27.3 percent) in its rural households preceded by other southern States like Tamil Nadu (34.7 percent) and Andhra Pradesh (41.5 percent).

Statement 2 is not correct - During the reference period of July 2012- June 2013, about 45 percent out of the total agricultural households in the country belonged to Other Backward Classes (OBC). About 16 percent of agricultural households were from Scheduled Castes (SC) and 13 percent were from Scheduled Tribes (ST).

Statement 3 is correct - Agricultural activity (cultivation, livestock and other agricultural activities) was reported to be the principal source of income for majority of the households in all the major States, except Kerala where about 61 percent of the agricultural households reported to have earned maximum income from sources other than agricultural activities.

Consider the following pairs: Regions sometimes mentioned in the news - Country

1. Catalonia - Spain
2. Crimea - Hungary
3. Mindanao - Philippines
4. Oromia - Nigeria

Which of the pair given above are correctly matched? [UPSC 2018]

Catalonia is a semi-autonomous region in north-east Spain.

Crimea was earlier part of Ukrain, currently under Russian control.

Mindanao is in the Philippines and was in news for the insurgency.

Oromia is in Ethiopia and has been in recent news for ethnic clashes.

If a commodity is provided free to the public by Government, then ______. [UPSC 2018]

Opportunity cost is the cost of choosing one alternative over another and missing the benefit offered by the forgone opportunity, investing or otherwise. Opportunity cost refers to a benefit that a person could have received, but gave up, to take another course of action. Stated differently, an opportunity cost represents an alternative given up when a decision is made. Opportunity cost is also called the economic cost.

As per microeconomics, opportunity cost is zero for free goods such as Air and common goods such as fish / grazing land. For public goods such as street light and defense, opportunity cost is involved (Government could have spent that much money on street lights rather than on military) so, opportunity cost is not zero. Option A is wrong.

Even though the consumer is getting it for free, the opportunity cost (of that commodity) is transferred to the Government. We can’t say that it’s transferred to the tax-payers because taxpayers don’t have direct control over how / where the Government will spend that money.

People were divided over C or D- some interpreting that opportunity cost is borne by the Decision Maker (Government), while others saying opportunity cost is borne by the person who eventually pays for it (Tax payer). It was difficult to ascertain from the standard books. But official answer key is Option C

Consider the following phenomenon:

1. Light is affected by gravity.
2. The universe is constantly expanding.
3. Matter warps its surrounding space-time.

Which of the above is/are prediction/predictions of Albert Einstein‘s General Theory Of Relativity, often discussed in media? [UPSC 2018]

In 1905, Albert Einstein determined that the laws of physics are the same for all non-accelerating observers and that the speed of light in a vacuum was independent of the motion of all observers. This was the theory of special relativity. It introduced a new framework for all of physics and proposed new concepts of space and time. General relativity has a number of physical consequences:

1. General relativity predicts that the path of light will follow the curvature of space-time as it passes near a star. This effect was initially confirmed by observing the light of stars or distant quasars being deflected as it passes the Sun.

2. Based on Einstein's general theory of relativity, Hubble analysed how galaxies recede from the Milky Way. He found that distant galaxies move away faster than those that are relatively nearby. Hubble‘s observations showed that the universe was indeed expanding. This model of the cosmos later became known as the big bang.

3. As he worked out the equations for his general theory of relativity, Einstein realized that massive objects caused a distortion in space-time.

Consider the following countries:

1. Australia

2. Canada

3. China

4. India

5. Japan

6. USA

Which of the above are among the 'free-trade partners' of ASEAN? [UPSC 2018]

The Association of Southeast Asian Nations, or ASEAN, was established on 8 August 1967 in Bangkok, Thailand, with the signing of the ASEAN Declaration (Bangkok Declaration) by the Founding Fathers of ASEAN, namely Indonesia, Malaysia, Philippines, Singapore and Thailand. ASEAN has existing free trade agreements with Australia, China, India, Japan, South Korea and New Zealand.

Has frequently been in news in 2017 and 2018 as Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP) is a proposed free trade agreement (FTA) between the ten member states of the Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN) and the six states with which ASEAN has existing free trade agreements.

The staple commodities of export by the English East India Company from Bengal in the middle of the 18th century were _______. [UPSC 2018]

Cotton, raw silk, saltpetre, opium were the major commodities exported from Bengal by the English East India Company.

Economically, one of the results of British rule in India in the 19th century was the ____. [UPSC 2018]

Economic Impact of British rule -

1. Deindustrialisation - Ruin of artisans and handicraftsmen: cheap and machine-made goods imports flooded the Indian market after the Charter Act of 1813 allowing one -way free trade for British citizens. On the other hand, Indian products found it more and more difficult to penetrate the European markets. After 1820, European markets were virtually closed to Indian export s. Even the newly introduced rail network helped the European products to reach the remotest corners of the country. Hence, option (a) is not correct. Another feature of deindustrialisation was the decline of many cities and a process of ruralisation of India. Many artisans, faced with diminishing returns and repressive policies of the Company abandoned their professions and moved to villages and took to agriculture. This resulted in increased pressure on land. An overburdened agriculture sector was a major cause of poverty during British rule and this upset the village economic set -up. Hence, option (d) is not correct.
2. The impoverishment of Peasantry - The Govt. was only interested in the maximisation of rents and in securing its share of revenue, had enforced the Permanent Settlement in large parts. Transferability of land was one feature of the new settlement which caused great insecurity to the tenants who lost all their traditional rights inland.
3. Development of Modern Industries - It was only in the second half of the 19th Century that modern machine-based industries started coming up in India. The first cotton textile mill was started in 1853 in Bombay by Cowasjee Nanabhoy and the first jute mill came up in 1855 in Rishra (Bengal). But most of the industries were foreign-owned and controlled by British managing agencies. Hence, option (b) is not correct.
4. The commercialisation of Indian Agriculture - In the latter half of the 19th century, another significant trend was the emergence of the commercialisation of agriculture. Agriculture began to be influenced by commercial considerations. Certain specialised crops began to be grown not for consumption in the village but for sale in the national and even international markets. Commercial crops like cotton, jute, groundnut, oilseeds, sugarcane, tobacco, etc . were more remunerative than foodgrains. Hence, the option (c) is correct. 

What is "Terminal High Altitude Area Defence (THAAD)", sometimes seen in the news? [UPSC 2018]

The Terminal High Altitude Area Defense, or simply abbreviated as THAAD, is an American missile defence system that is designed to intercept and destroy short and medium-range ballistic missiles in their final flight phase. First proposed in 1987 and then finally deployed in 2008, the THAAD cannot be used as a form of attack against an enemy.

Which of the following led to the introduction of English Education in India?

1. Charter Act of 1813
2. General Committee of Public Instruction, 1823
3. Orientalist and Anglicist Controversy.

Select the correct answer using the code given below. [UPSC 2018]

CHARTER ACT OF 1813 - The Act incorporated the principle of encouraging learned Indians and promoting knowledge of modern sciences in the country. The Act directed the. Company to sanction one lakh rupees annually for this purpose. However, even this petty amount was not made available till 1823, mainly because of the controversy raged on the question of the direction that this expenditure should take.

In 1823, the Governor-General -in Council appointed a “General Committee of Public Instruction”, which had the responsibility to grant the one lakh of rupees for education. That committee consisted of 10(ten) European members belonging to 2 groups Anglicists and Orientalists. Hence, it promoted both Indian and English education.

ORIENTALIST -ANGLIC1ST CONTROVERSY - Within the General Committee on Public Instruction, the Anglicists argued that the government spending on education should be exclusively for modern studies. The. Orientalists said while western sciences and literature should be taught to prepare students to take up jobs, emphasis should be placed on the expansion of traditional Indian learning. Even the Anglicists were divided over the question of medium of instruction—one faction was for the English language as the medium, while the other faction was for Indian languages (vernaculars) for the purpose. Lord Macaulay's Minute (1835), This famous minute settled the row in favour of Anglicists—the limited government resources were to be devoted to the teaching of western sciences and literature through the medium of English language alone.

Which among the following events happened earliest? [UPSC 2018]

Dayananda Saraswati and Arya Samaj -The Arya Samaj Movement, revivalist in form though not in content, was the result of a reaction to Western influences. Its founder, Dayananda Saraswati or Mulshankar (1824-1883) was born in the old Morvi state in Gujarat in a brahmin family. He wandered as an ascetic for fifteen years (1845-60) in search of truth. The first Arya Samaj unit was formally set up by him at Bombay in 1875.

Bankim Chandra Chatterji -The most significant outcome of the Indo-European contact was the literary genre of the novel which emerged in the latter half of the 19th century. The first important writer of that period was the Bengali novelist, Bankim Chandra Chatterji (1838-94). His novels are mostly historical, the best known among them being Anandamath (1882), noted for its powerful lyric ‘Vandemataram’ and depiction of the Sanyasi Revolt (1760s).

In 1863, Satyendra Nath Tagore became the first Indian to qualify for the Indian Civil Service.

Dinabandhu Mitra wrote Neel Darpan on the Indigo Revolt of mid 19th Century.

Who among the following were the founders of the "Hind Mazdoor Sabha" established in 1948? [UPSC 2018]

The Hind Mazdoor Sabha (HMS) is a National Trade Union Centre in India. It was founded in Howrah on 24th December 1948 by Socialist, Forward Bloc follower and independent unionists. Its founders included Basawan Singh (Sinha), Ashok Mehta, R.S. Ruikar, Mani Benkara, ShibnathBenerajee, R.K. Khedgikar, T.S. Ramanujam, VS. Mathur, G.G. Mehta. Mr R.S. Ruikar was elected president and Ashok Mehta as its General Secretary. The HMS absorbed the Royalists Indian Federation of Labour and the Socialist Hind Mazdoor Panchayat. The Hind Mazdoor Sabha was intended to be a third force in Indian trade unionism, balancing between INTUC on one side and AITUC on the other. INTUC was discarded because it was believed to be under the control of the government and AITUC was rejected because it was controlled by the Communist Party. The independence of trade unions from the Government, the employers and political parties is the basic feature of HMS.

Which one of the following is a very significant aspect of the Champaran Satyagraha? [UPSC 2018]

Champaran Satyagraha of 1917 opened a new phase in the national movement by joining it to the great struggle of the Indian peasantry for bread and land.It was the first peasant movement to have garnered nationwide attention. The Champaran Satyagraha yoked the peasant unrest to the freedom struggle. Subsequently, Gandhi’s localised movements in Ahmedabad (for millworkers) and Kheda (where he supported distressed peasants) were, in a sense, the training grounds for the massive nationwide protests after the landmark year of 1919 all of which eventually contributed to the liberation of India from the inglorious British rule.

After the Santhal rising subsided, what was/were the measure/measures taken by the colonial Government?.

Select the correct answer using a code given below. [UPSC 2018]

Statement 1 is correct. It was after the Santhal Revolt (1855-56) that the Santhal Pargana was created, carving out 5,500 square miles from the districts of Bhagalpur and Birbhum. The colonial state hoped that by creating a new territory for the Santhals and imposing some special laws within it, the Santhals could be conciliated.

Statement 2 is correct. To protect the economic basis of Santhal society, special regulations governed the transfer of land. It became illegal for a Santhal to transfer land to a non -Santhal.

He wrote biographies of Mazzini, Garibaldi, Shivaji and Shrikrishna; stayed in America for some time, and was elected to the Central Assembly. He was _____. [UPSC 2018]

Lala Lajpat Rai was gifted with a perceptive mind, he was a prolific writer and authored several works like – “Unhappy India”, “Young India: An Interpretation”, “History of Arya Samaj”, “England’s Debt to India” and a series of popular biographies. His biographies of Mazzini, Garibaldi and Shivaji were published in 1896 and those of Dayanand and Shri Krishna in 1898. His purpose in selecting Mazzini and Garibaldi was to infuse patriotic sentiment in the youth of Punjab, who had no access to books in English. He wanted his countrymen to become acquainted with the teachings of Italian leaders who had so impressed his own mind. He had seen the points of similarity between the problems of India and those the Italian leaders had to face. Lala Lajpat Rai travelled to the US in 1907. He toured Sikh communities along the West Coast in the USA and noted sociological similarities between the notion of 'colour-caste' there and within castes in India. He joined Swaraj Party in 1926 and was elected its Deputy Leader in the Central Legislative Assembly. He later resigned from the Swaraj Party in August 1926.

In 1920, which of the following changed its name to "Swarajya Sabha"? [UPSC 2018]

Gandhi had become the president of the All India Home Rule League in 1920. Its name was changed to 'Swaraj Sabha'.

The Indian Home Rule movement was a movement in British India on the lines of Irish Home Rule movement and other home rule movements. The movement lasted around two years between 1916–1918 and is believed to have set the stage for the independence movement under the leadership of Annie Besant and Bal Gangadhar Tilak to the educated English speaking upper-class Indians. In 1921 All India Home Rule League changed its name to Swarajya Sabha.

Which one of the following statements does not apply to the system of Subsidiary Alliance introduced by Lord Wellesley? [UPSC 2018]

The Company forced the states into a “subsidiary alliance”. According to the terms of this alliance, Indian rulers were not allowed to have their independent armed forces. They were to be protected by the Company, but had to pay for the “subsidiary forces” that the Company was supposed to maintain for the purpose of this protection. If the Indian rulers failed to make the payment, then part of their territory was taken away as a penalty. During this phase, from 1813 to 1857, the British made almost all the Indian States subordinate to their power, by compelling them to enter into subsidiary alliances with them. The Indian Princes were put under obligation to accept the British Paramountcy. Napoleonic invasion of Egypt in the summer of 1798 offered Wellesly a useful tool to soften London's resistance to expansion, although he never believed for a moment that there was any danger of a French invasion of British India either overland from Egypt or a naval attack round the Cape of Good Hope. However, to assuage London's concerns he evolved the policy of 'Subsidiary Alliance', which would only establish control over the internal affairs of an Indian state, without incurring any direct imperial liability.

There was no component of fixed income under this system.

The terms 'WannaCry, Petya and EternalBlue' sometimes mentioned in the news recently are related to _________. [UPSC 2018]

The WannaCry ransomware attack was a May 2017 worldwide cyberattack by the WannaCry ransomware cryptoworm, which targeted computers running the Microsoft Windows operating system by encrypting data and demanding ransom payments in the Bitcoin cryptocurrency. It propagated through EternalBlue, an exploit in older Windows systems released by The Shadow Brokers a few months prior to the attack.

Petya is a family of encrypting ransomware that was first discovered in 2016. The malware targets Microsoft Windows-based systems, infecting the master boot record to execute a payload that encrypts a hard drive's file system table and prevents Windows from booting. It subsequently demands that the user make a payment in Bitcoin in order to regain access to the system.

Regarding Wood's Dispatch, which of the following statements are true?

1. Grants-in-Aid system was introduced.
2. Establishment of universities was recommended.
3. English as a medium of instruction at all levels of education was recommended.

Select the correct answer using the code given below. [UPSC 2018]

In 1854, Charles Wood prepared a dispatch on an educational system for India. Considered the "Magna Carta of English Education in. India", this document was the first comprehensive plan for the spread of education in India. 

1. It asked the Government of India to assume responsibility for the education of the masses, thus repudiating the 'downward filtration theory', at least on paper.
2. It systematised the hierarchy from vernacular primary schools in villages at the bottom, followed by Anglo -Vernacular High Schoolsand an affiliated college at the district level, and affiliating universities in the presidency towns of Calcutta, Bombay and Madras. Statement 3 is not correct.
3. It recommended English as the medium of instruction for higher studies and vernaculars at the school level.
4. It laid stress on female and vocational, education, and teachers' training.
5. It laid down that theeducation imparted in government institutions should be secular. Statement 1 is correct.
6. It recommended a system of grants - in -aid to encourage private enterprise.Statement 2 is correct.

The Dispatch recommended the establishment of universities in the three Presidency towns of Calcutta, Bombay and Madras. The universities were to be modelled after the London University and these were to have a senate comprising of a Chancellor, a Vice-Chancellor, and fellows who were nominated by the Government. The Universities would confer degrees to the successful candidates after passing the examinations, (of Science or Arts Streams) conducted by the Senate. The universities were to organize departments not only of English but also of Arabic, Sanskrit and Persian, as well as law and civil engineering. 

With reference to India's satellite launch vehicles, consider the following statements:

1. PSLVs launch the satellite useful for Earth resources monitoring whereas GSLVs are designed mainly to launch communication satellites.
2. Satellites launched by PSLV appear to remain permanently fixed in the same position in the sky, as viewed from a particular location in Earth.
3. GSLV Mk III is a four-stage launch vehicle with the first and third stages using solid rocket motors, and the second and fourth stages using liquid rocket engines.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? [UPSC 2018]

Statement 1 is correct - Both PSLV (Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle) and GSLV (Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle) are the satellite-launch vehicles (rockets) developed by ISRO. PSLV is designed mainly to deliver the “earth-observation” or “remote-sensing” satellites with a lift-off mass of up to about 1750 Kg to Sun-Synchronous circular polar orbits of 600-900 Km altitude. Apart from launching the remote sensing satellites to Sun-synchronous polar orbits, the PSLV is also used to launch the satellites of lower lift-off mass of up to about 1400 Kg to the elliptical Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit (GTO). The GSLV is designed mainly to deliver the communication satellites to the highly elliptical (typically 250 x 36000 Km) Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit (GTO).

PSLV (Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle) is an indigenously-developed expendable launch system of the ISRO (Indian Space Research Organization). It comes in the category of medium-lift launchers with a reach up to various orbits, including the Geo Synchronous Transfer Orbit, Lower Earth Orbit, and Polar Sun Synchronous Orbit. So, the second statement that satellites launched by PSLV appear to be fixed (geostationary satellite) is not true.

GSLV Mk III is a three-stage heavy-lift launch vehicle developed by ISRO. The vehicle has two solid strap -ons, a core liquid booster and a cryogenic upper stage.

Very recently, in which of the following countries having lakhs of people either suffered from severe famine/acute malnutrition or died due to starvation caused by war/ ethnic conflicts? [UPSC 2018]

Yemen is now on the brink of “the world’s largest famine”, according to the United Nations. Already, 17 million people are dependent on external aid for food and medicine, while the country is fighting a massive cholera outbreak. The breakdown of government services, lack of drinking water and a crumbling health sector, besides the miseries of civil war and aerial bombardment, are fast turning Yemen into a failed state, and a breeding ground for extremist groups such as al-Qaeda in the Arabian Peninsula. One year after South Sudan briefly declared a famine, more than half of the people in the world’s youngest nation face extreme hunger amid civil war. A new report by the United Nations and South Sudan’s government says more than six million people are at threat without aid, up about 40 % from a year ago.

Why is a plant called Prosopis juliflora often mentioned in news? [UPSC 2018]

For decades, tree lovers and environmentalists across the country have been campaigning against Prosopis Juliflora. Also called Vilayati kikar, Prosopis juliflora, allows no other species to thrive and destroys biodiversity. It is considered a noxious invader in Ethiopia, Hawaii, Sri Lanka, Jamaica, Kenya, the Middle East, India, Nigeria, Sudan, Somalia, Senegal and Southern Africa. It is also a major weed in the southwestern United States. It is hard and expensive to remove as the plant can regenerate from the roots. It also takes over pastoral grasslands and uses scarce water. Livestock which consumes excessive amounts of seed pods is poisoned due to neurotoxic alkaloids. It causes land erosion due to the loss of the grasslands that are habitats for native plants and animals. The Delhi government recently gave its nod to clearing the Central Ridge of the non-native tree in the hope that the area‘s original flora — which is called the lungs of the city — as well as fauna can be restored.

Consider the following pairs: Terms sometimes see in news Context/Topic

1. Belle II experiment - Artificial Intelligence

2. Blockchain technology - Digital/Cryptocurrency

3. CRISPR - Cas9 - Particle Physics

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? [UPSC 2018]

The Belle II experiment is a particle physics experiment designed to study the properties of B mesons (heavy particles containing a bottom quark). Belle II is the successor to the Belle experiment and is currently being commissioned at the SuperKEKB accelerator complex at KEK in Tsukuba, Ibaraki Prefecture, Japan.

Blockchain technology can be integrated into multiple areas. The primary use of blockchains today is as a distributed ledger for cryptocurrencies, most notably bitcoin. While a few central banks, in countries and regions such as India, China, Hong Kong, United States, Sweden, Singapore, South Africa and the United Kingdom are studying issuance of a Central Bank Issued Cryptocurrency (CICC).

CRISPR-Cas9 is a genome-editing tool. It is short for clustered regularly interspaced short palindromic repeats and CRISPR-associated protein 9.

Consider the following statements:

1. Aadhaar card can be used as a proof of citizenship or domicile.
2. Once issued, Aadhaar number cannot be deactivated or omitted by the Issuing Authority.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? [UPSC 2018]

Statement 1 is incorrect - The Aadhaar (Targeted Delivery of Financial and Other Subsidies, Benefits and Services) Bill, 2016 says that the number can’t be used as proof of citizenship or domicile.

Statement 2 is incorrect - The Aadhaar Act regulations, state that an individual’s Aadhaar number may be “omitted” permanently or deactivated temporarily by the Unique Identification Authority of India, the agency responsible for issuing the numbers and managing the database. The regulations give the Authority the power to deactivate Aadhaar numbers even in the absence of an effective grievance redressal procedure for those whose numbers have been suspended.

Consider the following pairs: Tradition-State

1. Chapchar Kut festival - Mizoram
2. Khongjom Parba ballad - Manipur
3. Thang-Ta dance - Sikkim

Which of the pairs given above is/are correct? [UPSC 2018]

Pair 1 is correct - Chapchar Kut is the biggest festival of the Mizos and is celebrated in March after completion of jhum operation. It is a spring festival.

Pair 2 is correct - Khongjom Parba is a style of ballad singing from Manipur using Dholak (drum) which depicts stories of the heroic battle fought by Manipuris against the mighty British Empire in 1891. It is one of the most popular musical art forms of Manipur inciting the spirit of patriotism and nationalism among the people at one time.

Pair 3 is not correct - Manipur dance has a large repertoire, however, the most popular forms are the Ras, the Sankirtana and the Thang-Ta. Thang-ta dance of Manipur was an evolved from the martial arts drills promoted by the kings of Manipur.

Consider the following pairs: Craft Heritage of

1. Puthukkuli shawls - Tamil Nadu
2. Sujni embroidery - Maharashtra
3. Uppada Jamdani saris - Karnataka

Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?  [UPSC 2018]

Pair 1 is correctly matched - Toda tribe of Tamil Nadu do intricate Pithukuli work on cream coloured shawls. The colours are always red and black, and the shawl can be used both sides.

Pair 2 is not correctly matched - Sujani (also known as Sujini) is a form of embroidery originating from the Bhusura village of Bihar in India.

Pair 3 is not correctly matched - Uppada jamdani sarees are diaphanous silk saree that traces its origin to Uppada in Andhra Pradesh. Jamdani itself is a handwoven fabric that is also known as muslin. 

Consider the following events:

1. The first democratically elected communist party government formed in a State in India.

2. India's then-largest bank, 'Imperial Bank of India', was renamed 'State Bank of India'.

3. Air India was nationalised and became the national carrier.

4. Goa became a part of independent India.

Which of the following is the correct chronological sequence of the above events? [UPSC 2018]

The correct chronology is as follows:

• Air India was nationalized - 1953.
• Imperial Bank of India renamed as State Bank of India - 1955.
• The first democratically elected communist government in the state of India – 1957.
• Goa became a part of independent India - 1961

International Labour Organisation‘s Conventions 138 and 182 are related to ________. [UPSC 2018]

India recently ratified the two Core Conventions of the International Labour Organization (ILO) Conventions 138 regarding admission of age to employment and Convention 182 regarding worst forms of Child Labour.

With reference to educational institutions during colonial rule in India, consider the following pairs: Institution/Founder

1. Sanskrit College at Benaras - William Jones

2. Calcutta Madarsa - Warren Hastings

3. Fort William College - Arthur Wellesley

Which of the pairs given above is/are correct? [UPSC 2018]

Sanskrit College at Benaras was the first college in Benaras. Established in 1791 by Jonathan Duncan, it was a landmark college in India from where several notable teachers emerged. In 1958 it merged with Sampurnanand Sanskrit University.

Calcutta Madras was founded by the Governor-General Warren Hastings in October 1780.

Fort William College (also called the College of Fort William) was an academy and learning centre of Oriental studies established by Lord Richard Wellesley, then Governor-General of British India. The law to establish its foundation was passed on 4 May 1800.

"Rule of Law Index" is released by which of the following? [UPSC 2018]

The World Justice Project Rule of Law Index measures how the rule of law is experienced and perceived by the general public across the globe. It is the world’s leading source for original, independent data on the rule of law.

Consider the following statements:

1. The Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 replaced the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954.
2. The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is under the charge of Director General of Health Services in the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? [UPSC 2018]

Statement 1 is correct - Various central Acts like Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954, Fruit Products Order, 1955, Meat Food Products Order, 1973, Vegetable Oil Products (Control) Order, 1947, Edible Oils Packaging (Regulation) Order 1988, Solvent Extracted Oil, De- Oiled Meal and Edible Flour (Control) Order, 1967, Milk and Milk Products Order, 1992 etc. were repealed after commencement of FSS Act, 2006.

Statement 2 is incorrect - Ministry of Health & Family Welfare, Government of India is the Administrative Ministry for the implementation of FSSAI. The Chairperson and Chief Executive Officer of Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) have already been appointed by the Government of India. Before the formation of FSSAI, from 1954 onwards Prevention of Food Adulteration was part of Directorate General of Health Services. After having detached from the direct administrative control of the Health Ministry, this authority is holding independent authority and has attained a special status.

What is/are the consequence/consequences of a country becoming a member of the 'Nuclear Suppliers Group'?

1. It will have access to the latest and most efficient nuclear technologies.
2. It automatically becomes a member of "The Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons (NPT)".

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? [UPSC 2018]

Membership of the NSG means:

1. Access to technology for a range of uses from medicine to building nuclear power plants for India from the NSG which is essentially a traders’ cartel. India has its own indigenously developed technology but to get its hands on state of the art technology that countries within the NSG possess, it has to become part of the group. Hence statement 1 is correct.
2. With India committed to reducing dependence on fossil fuels and ensuring that 40% of its energy is sourced from renewable and clean sources, there is a pressing need to scale up nuclear power production. This can only happen if India gains access to the NSG. Even if India today can buy power plants from the global market thanks to the one-time NSG waiver in 2008, there are still many types of technologies India can be denied as it is outside the NSG.
3. India could sign the Nuclear non-proliferation treaty and gain access to all this know-how but that would mean giving up its entire nuclear arsenal. Given that it is situated in an unstable and unpredictable neighbourhood India is unlikely to sign the NPT or accede to the Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty (CTBT) that puts curbs on any further nuclear tests.
4. With access to the latest technology, India can commercialize the production of nuclear power equipment. This, in turn, will boost innovation and high tech manufacturing in India and can be leveraged for economic and strategic benefits.

Statement 2 is incorrect - Adherence to one or more of the NPT, the Treaties of Pelindaba, Rarotonga, Tlatelolco, Bangkok, Semipalatinsk or an equivalent international nuclear non - proliferation agreement, and full compliance with the obligations of such agreement(s); Hence, it does not automatically become a member of NPT. Support of international efforts towards non -proliferation of weapons of mass destruction and of their delivery vehicles.

"3D printing" has applications in which of the following?

1. Preparation of confectionery items
2. Manufacture of bionic ears
3. Automotive industry
4. Reconstructive surgeries
5. Data processing technologies

Select the correct answer using the code given below. [UPSC 2018]

3D printing or additive manufacturing is a process of making three dimensional solid objects from a digital file. The creation of a 3D printed object is achieved by laying down successive layers of material until the object is created. Each of these layers can be seen as a thinly sliced horizontal cross-section of the eventual object. Recently 3-D printed food restaurant has come up in the Netherlands. In America, 3D printed bionic ear was generated via 3D printing of a cell-seeded hydrogel matrix in the anatomic geometry of a human ear. Industrial 3D printers have opened new paths at each stage of production of motor vehicles; from the functional prototyping phases, design, and tooling production to parts manufacturing, the automotive industry is one of the pioneers in the use and integration of 3D printing in its processes. 3 D printing has been used in reconstructive surgery to help repair damaged tissue for example in cases of birth defects or traumatic injuries to severe burns or disease. 3 D printing is used to produce computer parts (such as circuit boards) which are used in the data processing.

With reference to digital payments, consider the following statements:

1. BHIM app allows the user to transfer money to anyone with a UPI-enabled bank account.
2. While a chip-pin debit card has four factors authentication, BHIM app has only two factors of authentication.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? [UPSC 2018]

Statement 1 is correct - Bharat Interface for Money (BHIM) is a payment app that lets you make simple, easy and quick transactions using Unified Payments Interface (UPI). You can make direct bank payments to anyone on UPI using their UPI ID or scanning their QR with the BHIM app. You can also request money through the app from a UPI ID.

Statement 2 is incorrect - From a consumer point of view, there are three levels of authentication that are required in this app. One is the device ID and mobile number, then the bank account which you are linking to this app, and then finally the UPI Pin which is needed to complete the transaction. There are three factors of authentication versus a normal net banking app or a chipping debit card which will only have two factors of authentication.

Among the following cities, which one lies on a longitude closest to that of Delhi? [UPSC 2018]

The longitude of Delhi is 77 degrees E and Bengaluru lie closest to Delhi in terms of longitude. Hyderabad and Nagpur are further on the east.

• Delhi is at 28°40′N (Longitude) and 77°20′E (Latitude)
• Bengaluru: 12° 58′ N, 77° 38′ E. So, Latitude wise, Bengaluru can be said to be the closest
• Hyderabad: 17° 20′ N, 78° 30′ E
• Nagpur: 21° 09′ N, 79° 09′ E
• Pune: 18° 31′ N, 73° 55′ E.