UPSC Prelims 2017 Solutions

Which one of the following is not a feature of Indian federalism?

There are two types of federations all over the world - Coming Together Federations and Holding Together Federations.

In the Coming Together Federal system, the sovereign units come together to create a nation. Such types of states are the result of the agreement between different states and the Union. In the case of the Holding Together Federations, the Union government transfers powers to the autonomous units of the local government. India is the second type of the federal country. Federalism in India is not due to some contract between states which created a country but it is a deliberate devolution of powers to the local levels for administrative convenience.

Right to vote and to be elected in India is a

Right to Vote is a Constitutional Right. Article 329 of the Constitution provides for Universal Adult Franchise. To grant voting powers to the people of age 18, the 69th Constitutional Amendment Act was enacted. Therefore, it is based on the provisions of the Constitution as well that who shall have the right to vote.

Consider the following statements: Which of the statements given below is/are correct?

1. In the election for Lok Sabha or State Assembly, the winning candidate must get at least 50 per cent of the votes polled, to be declared elected.
2. According to the provisions laid down in the Constitution of India, in Lok Sabha, the Speaker’s post goes to the majority party and the Deputy Speaker’s to the Opposition.

In Indian democracy, First Pass the Post system is practised. According to the system, a candidate who gets maximum number of votes, wins. Candidates need not to get 50% of votes all the time. Suppose if there are three candidates and two candidates get 30% votes each and the third one get 40% then the third candidate shall win the election.

The Parliament has many instruments for its functioning. One such is the Convention. It is the Parliamentary Convention that the office of the Deputy Speaker in the Lok Sabha shall be given to the member of Parliament from the opposition party. It is not a constitutional practice. Also, there is no mention in the constitution that the person from the ruling party will get the office of the speaker. It is based on the decision of the Members of Parliament's wishes.

Consider the following statements: Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. The Election Commission of India is a five-member body.
2. Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and by-elections.
3. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognised political parties.

Statement 1 is incorrect - Election Commission started as a single-member body, but later two more election commissioners were appointed and the Election Commission became a multi-member body, post-1988, when the voting age was reduced to 18 from 21. In 1990, other two posts were removed, but in 1993, the President again appointed two more election commissioners. Since then, the Election Commission is a three-member body.

Statement 2 is incorrect - With respect to the election schedule, the Election Commission has the authority to prepare the schedule for the general elections and by-elections. The notification is issued by the President of India and once it is published the schedule becomes the official schedule. The Ministry of Home Affairs has no role in determining the election schedule.

Statement 3 is correct - The election commission is also vested with the power to decide on matters of dispute regarding split in the political party and the election commission gives recognition to any political party.

In India, Judicial Review implies ___.

Verbatim question from NCERT

Judicial Review means the power of the Supreme Court (or High Court) to examine the constitutionality of any law. If the Court arrives at the conclusion that the law is inconsistent with the provisions of the Constitution, such a law is declared as unconstitutional and inapplicable.

Which of the following are not necessarily the consequences of the proclamation of the President’s rule in a State? Select the correct answer using the code given below:

President's Rule is imposed on a state following any failure in the constitutional machinery. The President, on the basis of the report submitted by the Governor, can impose the President's rule on the basis of her satisfaction. However, the legislative assembly of the state may not get dissolved, the exercise of the President's rule is confined to taking over the functions of the executive. Similarly, the local governments may not get dissolved. Statement 1 and 3 are correct.

The President can act without having the governor's report as the basis of the rule. The President can also impose state emergency as per the provisions mentioned in Article 365, if the state fails to follow the directives of the Union.

When the President’s Rule is imposed in a state, the President dismisses the state council of ministers headed by the chief minister. The state governor, on behalf of the President, carries on the state administration with the help of the chief secretary of state or the advisors appointed by the President. This is the reason why a proclamation under Article 356 is popularly known as the imposition of ‘President’s Rule’ in a state. Statement 2 is incorrect.

Which one of the following objectives is not embodied in the Preamble to the Constitution of India?

Economic Liberty is not enshrined in the Preamble. The idea of Liberty is confined to liberty of belief, faith, expression, thought and worship.

The Preamble in its present form reads:

“We, THE PEOPLE OF INDIA, having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a SOVEREIGN SOCIALIST SECULAR DEMOCRATIC REPUBLIC and to secure to all its citizens: JUSTICE, Social, Economic and Political; LIBERTY of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship; EQUALITY of status and of opportunity; and to promote among them all; FRATERNITY assuring the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the Nation; IN OUR CONSTITUENT ASSEMBLY this twenty-sixth day of November, 1949, do HEREBY ADOPT, ENACT AND GIVE TO OURSELVES THIS CONSTITUTION”.

Democracy’s superior virtue lies in the fact that it calls into activity ___.

Democracy is the idea of government which is centered around the public participation. In democracy, the people exercise their choices and in making those choices they express their will. Therefore much of the democracy is based on the choices of the people, which is based on the character of the people as well as on the level of awareness. In a democracy, unlike in any other form of government, the government is concerned about the popular perception and response. The democracy strengthens if the character and intelligence of the people is strong.

The main advantage of the parliamentary form of government is that ___.

The parliamentary government is a government in which the elected representatives of the people lead to form the government. The government in return is answerable to the elected representative of the people. This is also known as the responsible government. The executive is responsible to the representatives of the people.

Contrary to this, in the Presidential system, the Head of the Executive i.e. President is elected directly by the people and selects his/her council of ministers. Neither the President nor any other member of the executive will be responsible to the elected representatives of the people. Therefore, the basic feature of the parliamentary government which makes it distinct from all other types of government is that the executive is responsible to the legislature who are elected by the people.

With reference to the ‘Prohibition of Benami Property Transactions Act, 1988 (PBPT Act)’, consider the following statements: Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. A property transaction is not treated as a Benami transaction if the owner of the property is not aware of the transaction.
2. Properties held Benami are liable for confiscation by the Government.
3. The Act provides for three authorities for investigations but does not provide for any appellate mechanism.

Statement 1 is incorrect - The Benami Transaction is the type of transaction in which the person owns a property but it is registered in the name of someone else. There are four categories of benami transaction.

1. Where payment is provided by person A in the name of person B, provided that the purpose of the transaction is tax evasion and not willful transaction.
2. The person on whose name the transaction was made (benamidar) does not exist and is a fictitious person.
3. When the person on whose name the transaction is made is unaware of any transaction.
4. Where the payer of the transaction is untraceable.

Statement 2 is correct - The Benami properties are liable to be confiscated by the government.

Statement 3 is incorrect - The Benami Act has three investigating officers as well as an appellate mechanism.

The mind of the makers of the Constitution of India is reflected in which of the following?

In the Berubari Union Case, the Supreme Court explained the relevance of the Preamble. The Supreme Court held that the Preamble serves the purpose of opening the minds of the framers of the Constitution and to explain what was actually the mindset and objectives of our constitutional framers in the process of drafting the constitution.

The Preamble embodies the basic philosophy and fundamental values–political, moral and religious–on which the Constitution is based. It contains the grand and noble vision of the Constituent Assembly, and reflects the dreams and aspirations of the founding fathers of the Constitution. In the words of Sir Alladi Krishnaswami Iyer, a member of the Constituent Assembly who played a significant role in making the Constitution, ‘The Preamble to our Constitution expresses what we had thought or dreamt so long’. 

The Parliament of India exercises control over the functions of the Council of Ministers through:

Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

All the mentioned motions are exercised by the Parliament over the executive to keep a check on it. The basic idea of parliamentary democracy is that the elected representatives of the democracy question the acts and the decisions of the government and the government needs to answer them. This creates an obligation over the government to remain answerable to the representatives of the people directly, and to the people of the country indirectly. All the mentioned instruments are the methods of representatives of people asking questions to the government.

• Through adjournment motion, the parliament can drop all the ongoing issues and ask questions to the government on an event of importance.
• Question hour is an innovation in the Indian parliamentary practice. In this hour, the parliament asks questions to the executive on its actions.
• The device of supplementary questions further creates the obligation on the government to answer to the parliament in the answer from the government is found unsatisfactory.

Which one of the following statements is correct?

Rights are the claims of the individuals over the state. These are those claims that are considered necessary for leading a life in a dignified manner. These claims are made on the grounds that these represent the conditions in which an individual as well as a society can thrive forward. It lays down limits on the actions of the government and defines the scope of activity of an individual.

One of the implications of equality in society is the absence of ___.

The implication of equality is that every person is equal before the law, which means no privileges on the basis of any criteria. In other words, if privileges exist in the legal system then there is no equality and vice-versa.

Out of the following statements, choose the one that brings out the principle underlying the Cabinet form of Government:

The Parliamentary democracy is also known as the responsible democracy. The reason is that the government is responsible to the representatives elected by the people. In the presidential form of democracy, the Government is not responsible to the elected representatives of the people. This is the most striking aspect of the Parliamentary democracy.

Since it is not practical for all ministers to meet regularly and discuss everything, the decisions are taken in Cabinet meetings. That is why parliamentary democracy in most countries is often known as the Cabinet form of government. The Cabinet works as a team. The ministers may have different views and opinions, but everyone has to own up to every decision of the Cabinet.

For election to the Lok Sabha, a nomination paper can be filed by

To be qualified to contest an election in general elections for Lok Sabha, a person needs to be a citizen of the country. Secondly, to contest elections, a person needs to be a voter in any constituency of the country. A person need not be of the same constituency. A person from any state can contest elections in any state of the country, except for Assam, Sikkim, and Lakshdweep.

In the context of India, which one of the following is the correct relationship between Rights and Duties?

Rights are important for the wellbeing of the citizens. It is the right which gives an opportunity to an individual to develop herself fully. But with rights come certain responsibilities. While enjoying our rights, we cannot inhibit someone else's rights. For example, someone has the right to liberty to play music of his choice, but that does not mean hearing music in such a loud manner that other's right to enjoy peace is inhibited. Therefore, it is incorrect to say that rights are always personal and it is independent of society. Therefore Option B is incorrect.

Another example, suppose while enjoying our rights to enjoy certain kind of lifestyle or to do certain kind of business affects the environment like river pollution, soil pollution, ozone depletion, etc. Then in the process of enjoying our rights we are not advancing as a society, and the impact on the society will soon translate to the individual levels. Therefore it is equally important to stay aware of the responsibilities while enjoying rights for the advancement of the society. Therefore Option C is incorrect.

Considering duties more important than the rights might take away the fundamental aspect of the citizen. If duty is asserted all the time then the people might end up giving away all of their rights in the process. Absence of rights will lead to an atmosphere which might be non-conductive for the development of individuals. Therefore Option D is also incorrect.

Therefore, concluding the argument, we can say that the rights are and should be correlated to the responsibilities and duties. Only then the individual and society can progress in harmonious ways. Option A is the correct answer.

Which principle among the following was added to the Directive Principles of State Policy by the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution?

The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 added four new Directive Principles to the original list. They require the State:

1. To secure opportunities for healthy development of children (Article 39).
2. To promote equal justice and to provide free legal aid to the poor (Article 39 A).
3. To take steps to secure the participation of workers in the management of industries(Article 43 A).
4. To protect and improve the environment and to safeguard forests and wildlife (Article 48 A).

Which of the following are envisaged by the Right Against Exploitation in the Constitution of India? Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Provisions with respect to the Minorities are made in Article 29 and Article 30. Article 29 provides that any section of the citizens residing in any part of India having a distinct language, script or culture of its own, shall have the right to conserve the same. Further, no citizen shall be denied admission into any educational institution maintained by the State or receiving aid out of State funds on grounds only of religion, race, caste, or language.

Prohibition of Untouchability (Article 17) comes under Right to Equality (Articles 14-18). Article 17 abolishes ‘untouchability’ and forbids its practice in any form. The enforcement of any disability arising out of untouchability shall be an offence punishable in accordance with law.

Right Against Exploitation are mentioned under Article 23 to Article 24. Under these articles, exploitations such as - Beggars, Human Trafficking, Forced Labour, Child Labour are mentioned.

Article 23 prohibits traffic in human beings, beggars (forced labour) and other similar forms of forced labour. Any contravention of this provision shall be an offence punishable in accordance with law. This right is available to both citizens and non-citizens. It protects the individual not only against the State but also against private persons.

Article 24 prohibits the employment of children below the age of 14 years in any factory, mine or other hazardous activities like construction work or railway. But it does not prohibit their employment in any harmless or innocent work.

Consider the following statements: With reference to the Constitution of India, the Directive Principles of State Policy constitute limitations upon:

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

The Directive Principles of the State Policy are advisory in nature and impose neither any restriction on the government nor provide any right to the individuals. In other words, the Directives mentioned in Part IV neither have legislative bearing nor have any executive bearing. The purpose of it is to place social and political limitations over the government.

Which of the following statements is/are true of the Fundamental Duties of an Indian citizen? Select the correct answer using the code given below:

There is no legislative process provided by the Constitution to enforce the Fundamental Duties. However, the Parliament can come up with legislation to enforce these duties provided they are not violative of Fundamental Rights.

The Fundamental Duties are not correlative to legal duties. Legal Duties are those duties which a person is bound to perform by virtue of law. Since the Fundamental Duties are not enforceable by law, and since they cannot be legal duties or correlate to legal duties.

With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements: Which of the statements given below is/are correct?

1. A private member’s bill is a bill presented by a Member of Parliament who is not elected but only nominated by the President of India.
2. Recently, a private member’s bill has been passed in the Parliament of India for the first time in its history.

Private Member's bill is a device through which a member of the parliament, who is not a member of the government/executive, whether from the ruling party or from the opposition party, can introduce a bill for legislation. Therefore statement 1 is incorrect.

As of now, only 14 private members' bills have been approved and the last was in 1970. Hence both statements are incorrect.

According to the Wildlife (Protection Act, 1972), which of the following animals cannot be hunted by any person except under some provisions provided by law?

Select the correct answer using the code given below. [UPSC 2017]

Gharial (Gravialis gangeticus), Indian Wild Ass (Equus hemionus khur) and Wild Buffalo (Bubalus bubalis) are all mentioned under Schedule I for the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.

Wildlife Protection Act (WPA), 1972 consists of 6 schedule lists, which give varying degrees of protection. Poaching, smuggling and illegal trade of animals listed Schedule 1 to schedule 4 are prohibited.

Schedule 1 and part II of Schedule 2

• Animals listed in schedule 1 and part II of schedule 2 have absolute protection - offences under these are prescribed the highest penalties.
• Examples of animals listed in schedule 1 are lion-tailed macaque, rhinoceros, great Indian bustard, narcondam hornbill, Nicobar megapode, black buck, etc.
• Examples of animals listed in schedule 2 are rhesus macaque, dhole, Bengal porcupine, king cobra, flying squirrel, himalyan brown bear, etc.

Schedule 3 and schedule 4

• Animals listed in schedule 3 and schedule 4 are also protected, but the penalties are lower compared to schedule 1 and part 2 of schedule 2.
• Examples of animals listed in schedule 3 are hyaena, hog deer, nilgai, goral, sponges, barking deer, etc.
• Examples of animals listed in schedule 4 are mongooses, vultures, etc. schedule

Animals listed in schedule 5 are called “vermin” which can be hunted.

• Mice, rat, common crow and flying fox (fruit-eating bats) are the lists of animals (only 4 nos) in schedule 5 [i.e. vermin].

Schedule 6

• Cultivation, Collection, extraction, trade, etc. of Plants and its derivatives listed in schedule 6 are prohibited.
• Red Vanda, blue Vanda, kuth, pitcher plant, beddomes cycad and ladies slipper orchid are the list of plants listed in schedule 6.

With reference to river Teesta, consider the following statements:

1. The source of river Teesta is the same as that of Brahmaputra but it flows through Sikkim.
2. River Rangeet originates in Sikkim and it is a tributary of river Teesta.
3. River Teesta flows into Bay of Bengal on the border of India and Bangladesh.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? [UPSC 2017]

Statement 1 is not correct - The Teesta River originates from the Pahunri (or Teesta Kangse) glacier and flows southward through the Sikkim Himalaya where the Rangpo River joins, and where it forms the border between Sikkim and West Bengal up to Teesta Bazaar. Just before the Teesta Bridge, where the roads from Kalimpong and Darjeeling join, the river is met by its main tributary, the Rangeet River. The Brahmaputra, one of the largest rivers of the world, has its origin in the Chemayungdung glacier of the Kailash range near the Mansarovar lake. Hence Statement 2 is correct.

It changes course southwards flowing into West Bengal. The river then goes merging up with the Brahmaputra River after it bifurcates the city of Jalpaiguri and flows just touching Cooch Behar district at Mekhliganj and moves to Fulchori in Bangladesh. Thus it does not flow directly into the Bay of Bengal. Hence statement 3 is not correct

The terms ‘Event Horizon’, ‘Singularity’, ‘String Theory’ and ‘Standard Model’ are sometimes seen in the news in the context of ____. [UPSC 2017]

The terms - ‘Event Horizon’ - boundary in space-time, ‘Singularity’ - location in spacetime where the gravitational field of a celestial body becomes infinite, ‘String Theory’ - links together all physical aspects, and ‘Standard Model’ - unifying the four fundamental forces, are related to the observations and understanding of the Universe. 

Which of the following gives ‘Global Gender Gap Index’ ranking to the countries of the world? [UPSC 2017]

Global Gender Gap Index is released by World Economic Forum. As per the Global Gender Gap Report 2016, India ranks at 87th in respect of Global Gender Gap Index (GGI) among 144 countries of the World. As per the GGR, India climbed 21 spots to rank 87th in 2016, which is an improvement from being ranked at 108th in 2015. 

Present Status - Global Gender Gap Report 2020 has been released by the World Economic Forum. The Report aims to serve “as a compass to track progress on relative gaps between women and men on health, education, economy and politics”. Through this annual yardstick, the Report says, “stakeholders within each country are able to set priorities relevant in each specific economic, political and cultural context”.India has been ranked 112th among 153 countries this year. In 2018, it ranked 108.

Global gender gap index is a part of this which measures gender equality across four pillars– they are economic opportunity, political empowerment, educational attainment and health and survival.

With reference to ‘National Skills Qualification Framework (NSQF)’, which of the statements given below is/are correct?

Select the correct answer using the code given below: [UPSC 2017]

The National Skills Qualifications Framework (NSQF) organizes qualifications according to a series of levels of knowledge, skills and aptitude. These levels are defined in terms of learning outcomes which the learner must possess regardless of whether they were acquired through formal, non-formal or informal learning. It provides for multiple pathways, horizontal as well as vertical, both within vocational education and vocational training and among vocational education, vocational training, general education and technical education, thus linking one level of learning to another higher level. Thus Statement 1 is incorrect and statement 2 is correct.

Consider the following statements: The nation-wide ‘Soil Health Card Scheme’ aims at

1. expanding the cultivable area under irrigation.
2. enabling the banks to assess the quantum of loans to be granted to farmers on the basis of soil quality.
3. checking the overuse of fertilizers in farmlands.

Which of the above statements is/are correct? [UPSC 2017]

Launched by the central government in February 2015, the scheme is tailor-made to issue ‘Soil card’ to farmers which will carry crop-wise recommendations of nutrients and fertilizers required for the individual farms. This is aimed to help farmers to improve productivity through judicious use of inputs. Thus only statement 3 is correct.

Present Status -

Soil Health Card:

1. A Soil Health Card is used to assess the current status of soil health and, when used over time, to determine changes in soil health that are affected by land management.
2. It displays soil health indicators and associated descriptive terms. The indicators are typically based on farmers’ practical experience and knowledge of local natural resources.
3. The card lists soil health indicators that can be assessed without the aid of technical or laboratory equipment.

What it contains - It will contain the status of his soil with respect to 12 parameters, namely N,P,K (Macro-nutrients); S (Secondary- nutrient); Zn, Fe, Cu, Mn, Bo (Micro – nutrients); and pH, EC, OC (Physical parameters). Based on this, the SHC will also indicate fertilizer recommendations and soil amendment required for the farm.

In the second phase of the scheme’s implementation (Feb 2020), 11.69 crore Soil Health Cards were distributed to farmers in two years. And the scheme has led to a decline of 8-10% in the use of chemical fertilizers and also raised productivity by 5-6%

With reference to the ‘National Intellectual Property Rights Policy’, consider the following statements:

1. It reiterates India’s commitment to the Doha Development Agenda and the TRIPS Agreement.
2. Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion is the nodal agency for regulating intellectual property rights in India.

Which of the above statements is/are correct? [UPSC 2017]

The Union Cabinet approved the National Intellectual Property Rights (IPR) Policy in 2016 that will lay the future roadmap for intellectual property in India. This Policy shall weave in the strengths of the Government, research and development organizations, educational institutions, corporate entities including MSMEs, start-ups and other stakeholders in the creation of an innovation-conducive environment, which stimulates creativity and innovation across sectors, as also facilitates a stable, transparent and service-oriented IPR administration in the country. The Policy recognizes that India has a well-established TRIPS compliant legislative, administrative and judicial framework to safeguard IPRs, which meets its international obligations while utilizing the flexibilities provided in the international regime to address its developmental concerns. It reiterates India’s commitment to the Doha Development Agenda and the TRIPS agreement. Hence statement 1 is correct. 

These objectives are sought to be achieved through detailed action points. The action by different Ministries/ Departments shall be monitored by DIPP, which shall be the nodal department to coordinate, guide and oversee the implementation and future development of IPRs in India. Hence statement 2 is correct.

‘Broad-based Trade and Investment Agreement (BTIA)’ is sometimes seen in the news in the context of negotiations held between India and _____. [UPSC 2017]

The FTA talks with EU have been deadlocked since 2013 after 16 rounds of negotiations. Last year (2015) EU raised its concern over what it called India’s “unilateral termination” of existing Bilateral Investment Treaties (BITs) with “a significant number of” EU member countries.

Present Status (Jan2020) -The European Union (EU) has expressed interest in exploring a bilateral investment protection agreement (BIPA) with India that would be delinked from the proposed free trade agreement (FTA) where ongoing negotiations are in a state of limbo. Carving out a separate investment protection agreement from the bilateral FTA — formally called the Broad-based Trade and Investment Agreement (BTIA) — which is currently under negotiations, will make it possible for the investment protection pact to be signed even if there is no progress on the BTIA.

Consider the following statements:

1. The Nuclear Security Summits are periodically held under the aegis of the United Nations.
2. The International Panel on Fissile Materials is an organ of the International Atomic Energy Agency.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? [UPSC 2017]

Nuclear Security Summits are a United States-led initiative and are not under the aegis of the United Nations.

The International Panel on Fissile Materials (IPFM) was founded in January 2006 and is an independent group of arms-control and nonproliferation experts (and not an organ of International Atomic Energy Agency) from both nuclear weapon and non-nuclear-weapon states. Its members include nuclear experts from seventeen countries: Brazil, Canada, China, France, Germany, India, Iran, Japan, Mexico, Norway, Pakistan, South Korea, Russia, South Africa, Sweden, the United Kingdom, and the United States.

The Global Infrastructure Facility is a/an ____. [UPSC 2017]

The GIF supports Governments in bringing well -structured and bankable infrastructure projects to market. GIF’s project support can cover the spectrum of design, preparation, structuring and transaction implementation activities, drawing on the combined expertise of the GIF’s Technical and Advisory Partners and focusing on structures that are able to attract a wide range of private investors. Along with the World Bank Group, Canada is co-chair of the GIF’s Governing Council.

What is/are the most likely advantages of implementing ‘Goods and Services Tax (GST)’?

Select the correct answer using the code given below. [UPSC 2017]

1. It will replace multiple taxes collected by multiple authorities and will thus create a single market in India.
2. It will drastically reduce the ‘Current Account Deficit’ of India and will enable it to increase its foreign exchange reserves.
3. It will enormously increase the growth and size of the economy of India and will enable it to overtake China in the near future.

GST is one indirect tax for the whole nation, which will make India one unified common market. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

There is no information which says GST will drastically reduce the CAD of india. Neither it is true that it will enable India to take over China. Hence, statements 2 and 3 are not correct.

Consider the following statements:

1. The Standard Mark of Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) is mandatory for automotive tyres and tubes.
2. AGMARK is a quality Certification Mark issued by the Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? [UPSC 2017]

In 2010, a certification from the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS) had been made mandatory for all types of automotive tyres and tubes.

AGMARK is a certification mark employed on agricultural products in India, assuring that they conform to a set of standards approved by the Directorate of Marketing and Inspection, an agency of the Government of India. The AGMARK is legally enforced in India by the Agricultural Produce (Grading and Marking) Act of 1937 (and amended in 1986).

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC)?

Select the correct answer using the code given below: [UPSC 2017]

1. It decides the RBI’s benchmark interest rates.
2. It is a 12-member body including the Governor of RBI and is reconstituted every year.
3. It functions under the chairmanship of the Union Finance Minister.

The Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934 (RBI Act) has been amended by the Finance Act, 2016, to provide for a statutory and institutionalised framework for a Monetary Policy Committee it would be entrusted with the task of fixing the benchmark policy rate (repo rate) required to contain inflation within the specified target level. Hence Statement 1 is correct. 

As per the provisions of the RBI Act, out of the six Members of Monetary Policy Committee, three Members will be from the RBI, and the Central Government will appoint the other three Members of MPC. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. 

The Governor of the Bank is the ex officio Chairperson of MPC. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.

‘Recognition of Prior Learning Scheme’ is sometimes mentioned in the news with reference to _______. [UPSC 2017]

The Recognition of Prior Learning (RPL) is an assessment of the skills acquired by the individual through experience, observation and self learning. The assessment, which is followed by a certification, gives an edge to an otherwise informal worker. It provides the employee with the confidence, social recognition and empowerment that are necessary to negotiate his future employment. Following successful assessment, a candidate is given a financial reward, in addition to certification.

RPL is a key element under Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY) scheme of the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE).

The objectives of RPL are:

1. Align the competencies of the unregulated sectors of the country with the National Skills Qualification Framework
2. Enhance the chances of employment of individuals and provide them with more options for higher education.
3. Reduce the inequalities that are present due to the privileges given to some types of skills and knowledge over others.

Significance and the need for RPL:

• A huge section of India’s unorganized workforce are unskilled and semi-skilled. Most of them pick up skills and knowledge in an informal set up by observing people or working under their guidance or through complete self-learning.
• As a result, even though they manage to get a job and earn a decent wage or salary, they may not be able to improve their skills.
• This affects their productivity and quality of output.
• Recognition of Prior Learning (RPL) can help them get assessed and certified on their current competencies as per NSQF levels.
• RPL also shows them a path to bridge their current knowledge and skill levels to reach a competency level or go for higher skills for professional growth.

Which of the followings are the objectives of ‘National Nutrition Mission’?

Select the correct answer using the code given below: [UPSC 2017]

1. To create awareness relating to malnutrition among pregnant women and lactating mothers.
2. To reduce the incidence of anaemia among young children, adolescent girls and women.
3. To promote the consumption of millets, coarse cereals and unpolished rice.
4. To promote the consumption of poultry eggs.

There are two components of the National Nutrition Mission as follows:

1. Information, Education and Communication (IEC) Campaign against malnutrition.

2. Multi -sectoral Nutrition Programme

The key objectives of these programmes are as under: -

• To create awareness relating to malnutrition amongst pregnant women, lactating mothers, promote healthy lactating practices and importance of balanced nutrition;
• To improve maternal and child under -nutrition in 200 high burdened districts and to prevent and reduce the under -nutrition prevalent among children below 3 years;
• To reduce incidence of anaemia among young children, adolescent girls and women.

With reference to ‘National Investment and Infrastructure Fund’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

Select the correct answer using the code given below: [UPSC 2017]

National Investment and Infrastructure Fund (NIIF) is a fund created by the Government of India for enhancing infrastructure financing in the country. Its creation was announced in the Union Budget 2015 -16. Governing Council of NIIF is an advisory body - chaired by the Finance Minister. It is not an organ of NITI Aayog. Hence statement 1 is not correct.

The proposed corpus of NIIF is Rs. 40,000 Crores (around USD 6 Billion). Hence statement 2 is also not correct. 

Which of the following statements best describes the term ‘Scheme for Sustainable Structuring of Stressed Assets (S4A)’, recently seen in the news. [UPSC 2017]

Scheme for Sustainable Structuring of Stressed Assets (S4A) - Introduced in June 2016, in it, an independent agency is hired by the banks which decides as how much of the stressed debt of a company is ‘sustainable’. The rest (‘unsustainable’) is converted into equity and preference shares. Unlike the SDR arrangement, this involves no change in the ownership of the company.

The S4A by RBI envisages determination of the sustainable debt level for a stressed borrower, and bifurcation of the outstanding debt into sustainable debt and equity/quasi-equity instruments which are expected to provide upside to the lenders when the borrower turns around. 

The term ‘Digital Single Market Strategy’ seen in the news refers to ____. [UPSC 2017]

The Digital Single Market strategy was adopted by European Union on the 6 May 2015 and includes 16 specific initiatives which aims to open up digital opportunities for people and business and enhance Europe's position as a world leader in the digital economy.

Organic Light-Emitting Diodes (OLEDs) are used to create a digital display in many devices. What are the advantages of OLED displays over Liquid Crystal displays?

Select the correct answer using the code given below: [UPSC 2017]

1. OLED displays can be fabricated on flexible plastic substrates.
2. Roll-up displays embedded in clothing can be made using OLEDs.
3. Transparent displays are possible using OLEDs.

All the three statements are correct with regard to OLED and they are the disadvantages of LCDs. Flexible Organic Light-Emitting Diodes (FOLED) fabricated on flexible plastic substrates can be bent or rolled while operating. The manufacturing process of OLEDs is different from those of LCD technology. OLEDs can be printed onto almost any substrate with inkjet printer technology. That is why new applications like displays embedded in clothes or roll-up displays are possible. LCD technology engages a backlight, whereas OLED has no backlighting function. Hence it can be used for making transparent displays.

What is the purpose of ‘evolved Laser Interferometer Space Antenna (eLISA) project? [UPSC 2017]

eLISA is a spectacular plan of setting into space three spacecraft, a mother and two daughter spacecraft, which will fly in a triangular formation, trailing the earth in its orbit around the sun at a distance of over 50 million km. Laser interferometers will accurately measure changes in the distance between these cubes. If they should be affected by a gravitational wave, the minute changes in this distance are measure by the interferometer.

Which of the following has/have occurred in India after its liberalisation of economic policies in 1991?

Select the correct answer using the codes given below: [UPSC 2017]

The post-reform period shows a gradual decline in the agriculture sector's contribution to the Indian economy. India's traditional occupation, agriculture now contributes only about 15% to the GDP, down from 29 per cent in 1991. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect. 

Share of India's exports increased since 1991. Hence, statement 2 is correct. 

Before 1991, foreign investment was negligible. The first year of reform saw a total foreign investment of only $74 million. However, investments have steadily risen since then, except for occasional blips between 1997 and 2000 and 2008 and 2012 – owing to the global economic slowdown. As of 31 March 2016, the country has received total FDI of $371 billion, since 1991. The year 2008 recorded the highest FDI inflow of $43.40 billion. The biggest spurt in inflow was between 2005 and 2006 – 175.54%. As of March 2016, India has attracted $10.55 billion worth of FDI. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

It was India's dismal state of forex reserves that forced the government to bring in economic reforms. Now, 25 years later, forex reserves are at a record high. In 1991, it stood at just $5.8 billion. As of 24 June, the country's forex reserves are at $360.8 billion. Usually, import overage of 7-8 months is considered sufficient. The biggest jump in reserves was witnessed between 2007 and 2008 when the kitty bulged 55% to hit $309.2 billion. Hence, statement 4 is correct.

What is the application of Somatic Cell Nuclear Transfer Technology? [UPSC 2017]

Somatic-cell nuclear transfer involves removing the nucleus, which contains the DNA and implanting it into an unfertilised egg, whose nucleus has been removed. It is used in reproductive cloning of organisms.

In the context of mitigating the impending global warming due to anthropogenic emissions of carbon dioxide, which of the following can be the potential sites for carbon sequestration?

Select the correct answer using the code given below: [UPSC 2017]

Carbon sequestration is the process involved in carbon capture and the long-term storage of atmospheric carbon dioxide. Geological sequestration involves the storage of CO₂ underground in depleted oil and gas reservoirs, saline formations or deep, unminable coal beds.

Carbon capture has actually been in use for years. The oil and gas industries have used carbon capture for decades as a way to enhance oil and gas recovery. Only recently have we started thinking about capturing carbon for environmental reasons

With reference to agriculture in India, how can the technique of ‘genome sequencing’, often seen in the news, be used in the immediate future?

Select the correct answer using the code given below: [UPSC 2017]

1. Genome sequencing can be used to identify genetic markers for disease resistance and drought tolerance in various crop plants.
2. This technique helps in reducing the time required to develop new varieties of crop plants.
3. It can be used to decipher the host-pathogen relationships in crops.

All the statements are correct.

Genome sequencing is figuring out the order of DNA nucleotides, or bases, in a genome—the order of As, Cs, Gs, and Ts that make up an organism's DNA. Genome sequencing of wild varieties of plants can be used to identify disease resistance and drought tolerance genes in various plants and develop new varieties of crop plants in lesser time. Genome sequencing of crop plants can be helpful in deciphering and understanding the host-pathogen relationships in crops.

The painting of Bodhisattva Padmapani is one of the most famous and oft-illustrated paintings at _______. [UPSC 2017]

The painting is on the back wall of the interior hall before the shrine - antechamber in Cave No. 1 at Ajanta dating back to the late fifth century CE. The Boddhisattva is holding a Padma (lotus), has large shoulders, and has three bents in the body creating a movement in the picture space. The modelling is soft. The figure of the Boddhisattva is wearing a big crown in which detailed rendering is visible.

One can observe certain typological and stylistic variations in the paintings of Ajanta indicating different guilds of artisans working on the cave paintings at Ajanta over the centuries.

Consider the following statements:

1. In tropical regions, Zika virus disease is transmitted by the same mosquito that transmits dengue.
2. Sexual transmission of Zika virus disease is possible.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? [UPSC 2017]

Zika virus is primarily transmitted to people through the bite of an infected mosquito from the Aedes genus, mainly Aedes aegypti in tropical regions. This is the same mosquito that transmits dengue, chikungunya and yellow fever. Although the Zika virus is primarily transmitted through mosquitoes, it can also be sexually transmitted as well.

In 2017, WHoO confirms the first three Zika virus cases in India.

With reference to Manipuri Sankirtana, consider the following statements:

1. It is a song and dance performance.
2. Cymbals are the only musical instruments used in the performance.
3. It is performed to narrate the life and deeds of Lord Krishna.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? [UPSC 2017]

Sankirtana encompasses an array of arts performed to mark religious occasions and various stages in the life of the Vaishnava people of the Manipur plains. Sankirtana practices centre on the temple, where performers narrate the lives and deeds of Krishna through song and dance. Hence, statement 1 and 3 are correct.

In a typical performance, two drummers and about ten singer-dancers perform in a hall or domestic courtyard encircled by seated devotees. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

[Ref: ]

In the context of Indian history, the principle of ‘Dyarchy (diarchy)’ refers to ____. [UPSC 2017]

The Government of India Act of 1919 was enacted to satisfy the people of India to some extent. The salient features of the Act were as follows :

(a) Preamble: The Act provided for a Preamble that laid down the basic principles and policies upon which it was based. According to it the policy of the British Parliament was –

(i) to provide for the increasing association of Indians in every branch of Indian administration,

(ii) to develop self-governing institutions with a view to the progressive realisation of responsible government in British India as an integral part of the empire;

(iii) accordingly, the Preamble suggested for a decentralised unitary form of government.

The Act divided the functions of government in two categories: central and provincial. The provincial subjects were further subdivided into transferred and reserved. Thus, in the provinces, a new form of government, dyarchy, was introduced. Dyarchy means a dual set of governments, e.g. accountable and unaccountable.

In the transferred subjects the Governors were to be assisted by the ministers responsible to the legislature while in the reserved subjects the Governors were to be advised by the councillors who were not accountable to the legislature.

With reference to the Indian freedom struggle, consider the following events:

1. Mutiny in Royal Indian Navy.
2. Quit India Movement launched.
3. Second Round Table Conference.

What is the correct chronological sequence of the above events? [UPSC 2017]

Second Round Table Conference took place on 7th September 1931. The Quit India Movement, also known as the August Movement was a Civil Disobedience Movement launched by Gandhi JI on 8th August 1942. Royal Indian Navy (RIN) mutiny was a rebellion launched on February 18, 1946, by seamen on the HMIS Talwar. Hence the correct chronological sequence of the above events is 3-2-1.

Consider the following pairs:

1. Radhakanta Deb – First President of the British Indian Association.
2. Gazulu Lakshminarasu Chetty – Founder of the Madras Mahajana Sabha.
3. Surendranath Banerjee – Founder of the Indian Association.

Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched? [UPSC 2017]

The British Indian Association was established on 31 October 1851. The first committee of the association was composed of:

Raja Radhakanta Deb – President, Raja Kalikrishna Deb – Vice-President, Debendranath Tagore – secretary, Digambar Mitra – Asst Secretary.

In May 1884, M. Veeraraghavachariar, G. Subramania Iyer and P. Anandacharlu established the Madras Mahajana Sabha.

Gazulu Lakshminarasu Chetty was an Indian merchant, Indian independence activist and political activist who founded the Madras Native Association.

Indian Association was the first declared Nationalist Organization founded in British India by Surendranath Banerjee and Anand Mohan Bose in 1876.

Which of the following practices can help in water conservation in agriculture?

Select the correct answer using the code given below: [UPSC 2017]

No-till farming (also called zero tillage or direct drilling) is a way of growing crops or pasture from year to year without disturbing the soil through tillage. No-till is an agricultural technique which increases the amount of water that infiltrates into the soil and increases organic matter retention and cycling of nutrients in the soil. Gypsum improves the ability of soil to drain and not become waterlogged thus increasing water-use efficiency of crops. 

Consider the following statements:

1. In India, the Himalayas are spread over five States only.
2. Western Ghats are spread over five States only.
3. Pulicat Lake is spread over two States only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? [UPSC 2017]

Statement 1 is not correct: In India, the Himalayas are spread over Jammu & Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Sikkim, Assam, West Bengal, Arunachal Pradesh. Some extensions of Shiwaliks are also present in Punjab and Haryana.

Statement 2 is not correct: the Western Ghats are spread over six states, namely- Gujarat, Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu.

Statement 3 is correct: Pulicat, the second largest brackish water lake in India, lies on the border of Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu. Over 40% of it lies in Andhra Pradesh and 60% in Tamil Nadu.

If you travel by road from Kohima to Kottayam, what is the minimum number of States within India through which you can travel, including the origin and the destination? [UPSC 2017]

The shortest route from Kohima (Nagaland) to Kottayam (Kerala) passes through the following states: Nagaland-Assam-West Bengal-Odisha-Andhra Pradesh-Tamil Nadu-Kerala

What is the importance of developing Chabahar Port by India? [UPSC 2017]

India and Iran signed a series of agreements that allowed New Delhi to use the port of Chabahar to access Central Asia and Afghanistan without depending upon Pakistan.

With reference to the difference between the culture of Rigvedic Aryans and Indus Valley people, which of the following statements is/are correct?

Select the correct answer using the code given below. [UPSC 2017]

1. Rigvedic Aryans used the coat of mail and helmet in warfare whereas the people of Indus Valley Civilisation did not leave any evidence of using them.
2. Rigvedic Aryans knew gold, silver and copper whereas Indus Valley people knew only copper and iron.
3. Rigvedic Aryans had domesticated the horse whereas there is no evidence of Indus Valley people having been aware of this animal.

Statement 1 is correct - Rigvedic Aryans used the coat of mail and helmet in warfare whereas the people of Indus Valley Civilization did not leave any evidence of using them.

Statement 2 is not correct - Various materials were used in Harappan civilisation to make beads: stones like carnelian, jasper, crystal, quartz and steatite; metals like copper, bronze and gold; and shell, faience and terracotta or burnt clay. Some beads were made of two or more stones, cemented together, some of stone with gold caps.

Statement 3 is correct or incorrect - Pieces of evidence that the horse comes from a superficial level of Mohenjodaro and from a terracotta figurine from Lothal. The remains of the horse have been reported from Surkotada belonging to around 2000BC. A few horse's teeth have been found in the lowest stratum of the Baluchistan site of Rana Ghundal, probably dating from several centuries earlier than the foundation of Harappa. This would indicate that horse-riding nomads found their way to N.-W. India in small numbers long before the Aryan invasion.

Unofficial Answerkey: were divided among A and C- so the basic debate was over whether Harappans knew about a horse or not?

UPSC Official Answerkey: “C” is the answer.

With reference to the religious history of India, consider the following statements:

1. Sautrantika and Sammitiya were the sects of Jainism.
2. Sarvastivadin held that the constituents of phenomena were not wholly momentary, but existed forever in a latent form.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? [UPSC 2017]

Statement 1 is not correct - Sautrantika and Sammitya were the sects of Buddhism.

Statement 2 is correct - Sarvastivadins (They who say "All is"), had the view that the constituents of phenomena (dharmas) were not wholly momentary, but existed forever in a latent form.

Who among the following was/were associated with the introduction of Ryotwari Settlement in India during the British rule?

Select the correct answer using the code given below: [UPSC 2017]

In the British territories in the south, there was a similar move away from the idea of Permanent Settlement. The new system that was devised came to be known as the ryotwar (or ryotwari). It was tried on a small scale by Captain Alexander Reed in some of the areas that were taken over by the Company after the wars with Tipu Sultan. Subsequently developed by Thomas Munro, this system was gradually extended all over south India. Lord Cornwallis was associated with Zamindari/ Permanent Settlement.

Which of the following is geographically closest to Great Nicobar? [UPSC 2017]

Great Nicobar is the southernmost and largest of the Nicobar Islands of India, north of Sumatra. The island of Sumatra is located 180 km (110 mi) to the south of Great Nicobar.

Consider the following statements in respect of Trade Related Analysis of Fauna and Flora in Commerce (TRAFFIC):

1. TRAFFIC is a bureau under the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).
2. The mission of TRAFFIC is to ensure that trade in wild plants and animals is not a threat to the conservation of nature.

Which of the above statements is/are correct? [UPSC 2017]

TRAFFIC, the wildlife trade monitoring network, is the leading non-governmental organization working globally on trade in wild animals and plants in the context of both biodiversity conservation and sustainable development. TRAFFIC was established in 1976 by IUCN and WWF to respond to the growing threats posed by illegal wildlife trade and overexploitation. It is not a bureau under UNEP.

At one of the places in India, if you stand on the seashore and watch the sea, you will find that the seawater recedes from the shoreline a few kilometres and comes back to the shore, twice a day, and you can actually walk on the seafloor when the water recedes. This unique phenomenon is seen at _______. [UPSC 2017]

Chandipur is located in Balasore district. This beach is unique in the whole world no where on earth you can find a beach where the seawater retreats inside the sea from 1km to 5Km every day and it again comes back to the shore slowly during high tide. This happens twice every day. It is also known as Odisha's Hide and Seek Beach. Bhavnagar has highest tidal range in India.

It is a phenomenon unique only to Chandipur beach, India. Chandipur-on sea is also the location of the Indian Army's Integrated Test Range and is often seen in the news.

With reference to ‘Global Climate Change Alliance’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It is an initiative of the European Union.
2. It provides technical and financial support to targeted developing countries to integrate climate change into their development policies and budgets.
3. It is coordinated by the World Resources Institute (WRI) and World Business Council for Sustainable Development (WBCSD).

Select the correct answer using the codes given below: [UPSC 2017]

The Global Climate Change Alliance (GCCA) was established by the European Union (EU) in 2007 to strengthen dialogue and cooperation with developing countries, in particular, least developed countries (LDCs) and small island developing States (SIDS).

Under the first pillar, the GCCA+ serves as a platform for dialogue and exchange of experience between the EU and developing countries, focusing on climate policy and bringing renewed attention to the issue of international climate finance.

Under the second pillar, the GCCA+ acts as a source of technical and financial support for the world's most climate-vulnerable countries, whose populations need climate finance the most.

International organisations – notably the Centre for International Forestry Research (CIFOR), the Food and Agriculture Organisation (FAO), the United Nations Capital Development Fund (UNCDF), the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP), the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP), UN-Habitat and the World Bank – are involved in the implementation of some GCCA-funded interventions, and also co-finance some initiatives.

Statement 3 is not correct: Through the Greenhouse Gas Protocol (GHGP) World Resources Institute (WRI) and the World Business Council for Sustainable Development (WBCSD) work with businesses to develop standards and tools that help companies measure, manage, report and reduce their carbon emissions.

Consider the following in respect of the Indian Ocean Naval Symposium (IONS):

1. Inaugural IONS was held in India in 2015 under the chairmanship of the Indian Navy.
2. IONS is a voluntary initiative that seeks to increase maritime cooperation among navies of the littoral states of the Indian Ocean Region.

Which of the above statements is/are correct? [UPSC 2017]

The ‘Indian Ocean Naval Symposium’ (IONS) is a voluntary initiative that seeks to increase maritime co-operation among navies of the littoral states of the Indian Ocean Region by providing an open and inclusive forum for discussion of regionally relevant maritime issues. There are 35 members - navies of the IONS which have been geographically grouped into the following four sub-regions:- South Asian Littorals, West Asian Littorals, East African Littorals, South East Asian and Australian Littorals. The inaugural IONS-2008 was held in New Delhi, India on 14 Feb 08. CNS, Indian Navy was designated the Chairman IONS for the period 2008-10. The theme of the IONS-2008 was “Contemporary Trans-national Challenges – International Maritime Connectivities”. Thus statement 2 is correct and statement 1 is not correct.

With reference to the role of UN-Habitat in the United Nations Programme working towards a better urban future, which of the statements is/are correct?

1. UN-Habitat has been mandated by the United Nations General Assembly to promote socially and environmentally sustainable towns and cities to provide adequate shelter for all.
2. Its partners are either governments or local urban authorities only.
3. UN-Habitat contributes to the overall objective of the United Nations system to reduce poverty and to promote access to safe drinking water and basic sanitation.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below: [UPSC 2017]

Statement 1 is correct - UNHabitat is the United Nations programme working towards a better urban future. Its mission is to promote socially and environmentally sustainable human settlements development and the achievement of adequate shelter for all.

Statement 2 is not correct - It partners with a range of organizations in its endeavour. For example, governments, local authorities, NGOs, Trade unions, professionals, Academics and Researchers, Human Solidarity Groups, Indigenous People, Private Sector, Foundations, Financial Institutions.

Statement 3 is correct - In the absence of effective urban planning, the consequences of this rapid urbanization can lead to lack of proper housing and growth of slums, inadequate and outdated infrastructure – be it roads, public transport, water, sanitation, or electricity – escalating poverty and unemployment, safety and crime problems, pollution and health issues. UN-Habitat contributes to the overall objective of sustainable urbanization.

It was in news due to two factors:

1. In October 2016, at the UN Conference on Housing and Sustainable Urban Development – Habitat III – member states signed the New Urban Agenda. This conference happens once in 20 years.
2. In May 2017, India was elected as the president of the UNHabitat. On behalf of India, Housing and Urban Poverty Alleviation Minister will preside over the meetings of UN-Habitat.

With reference to ‘Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD)’ sometimes mentioned in the news while forecasting Indian monsoon, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. IOD phenomenon is characterised by a difference in sea surface temperature between tropical Western Indian Ocean and tropical Eastern Pacific Ocean.
2. An IOD phenomenon can influence El Nino’s impact on the monsoon.

Select the correct answer using the code given below: [UPSC 2017]

Statement 1 is not correct - The Indian Ocean Dipole is an irregular oscillation of sea-surface temperatures in which the western Indian Ocean becomes alternately warmer and then colder than the eastern part of the ocean.

Statement 2 is correct - an IOD can either aggravate or weaken the impact of El Nino on Indian monsoon. If there is a positive IOD, it can bring good rains to India despite an El Nino year. 

The Indian Ocean Dipole (IOD) is the Indian Ocean counterpart of the Pacific El Niño and La Niña. The term dipole means two “poles” or two areas of differences. The IOD measures differences in SSTs between the Arabian Sea (western pole) and the eastern Indian Ocean south of Indonesia (eastern pole). Both of these poles are situated within the equatorial belt of the Indian Ocean (i.e., between 10°N and 10°S) but they have a northwest-southeast diagonal orientation because of the physical configuration of the North Indian Ocean. The Arabian Sea is located north of the equator and the Indian Ocean south of Indonesia is located south of the equator.

Like ENSO, IOD is a coupled ocean-atmosphere phenomenon. The shifting pools of warm/cool water contribute to variations in rainfall and storm activities of many countries surrounding the Indian Ocean. It is postulated that the IOD is linked to the Pacific ENSO through the easterlies (considered as a limb/part of the Walker Circulation)7 and through the transport of warm waters from the Pacific into the Indian Ocean. During a positive IOD, warmer SSTs develop over the western Indian Ocean (the Arabian Sea, in particular). During a negative IOD, the opposite happens, that is, the western Indian Ocean becomes cooler with higher air pressures resulting in westerly winds blowing toward the Indian subcontinent (i.e., reversing the prevailing easterlies). Positive IODs are often associated with El Niño and negative IODs with La Niña.

If you want to see gharials in their natural habitat, which one of the following is the best place to visit? [UPSC 2017]

National Chambal Sanctuary, also called the National Chambal Gharial Wildlife Sanctuary is a tristate protected area in northern India for the critically endangered gharial (small crocodiles), the red-crowned roof turtle and the endangered Ganges river dolphin.

From the ecological point of view, which one of the following assumes importance in being a good link between the Eastern Ghats and the Western Ghats? [UPSC 2017]

Sathyamangalam forest range is a significant wildlife corridor in the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve between the Western Ghats and the rest of the Eastern Ghats Located in the Erode district of Tamil Nadu, the Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve is the largest wildlife sanctuary in the state. With a forest area of 1,411.6 square kilometres, the reserve is a part of the Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve and lies between the Western Ghats and the rest of the Eastern Ghats. Situated in a key position between the Western and Eastern Ghats, the Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve boasts of a wide variety of fauna. The reserve also adjoins four other protected areas -- Billigiriranga Swamy Temple Wildlife Sanctuary, Sigur Plateau, Mudumalai National Park and Bandipur National Park.

The Sathyamangal am Tiger Reserve was in news for an increase in Bear population. Also in December 2016, Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve ecotourism plan was revived.

[Ref: http://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/Bear-population-up-and-counting-at-the-Sathyamangalam-Tiger-Reserve/article13986305.ece]

Due to some reasons, if there is a huge fall in the population of species of butterflies, what could be its likely consequence/ consequences?

1. Pollination of some plants could be adversely affected.
2. There could be a drastic increase in the fungal infections of some cultivated plants.
3. It could lead to a fall in the population of some species of wasps, spiders and birds.

Select the correct answer using the code given below. [UPSC 2017]

Statement 1 and 3 are correct - Butterflies are pollinating insects. They help in pollination of many flowering plants. Butterflies also act as a lower member of the food chain. A number of animals, including birds and mice, feed on the butterfly. As populations of butterfly diminish, so will populations of birds and other animals that rely on them as a food source. This loss of the butterfly is the beginning of the “butterfly effect.” Statement 2 is not correct.

In India, if a species of tortoise is declared protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972, what does it imply? [UPSC 2017]

The Act provides for the protection of wild animals, birds and plants; and for matters connected therewith or ancillary or incidental thereto. It extends to the whole of India, except the State of Jammu and Kashmir which has its own wildlife act. It has six schedules which give varying degrees of protection. Schedule I and part II of Schedule II provide absolute protection - offences under these are prescribed the highest penalties. Species listed in Schedule III and Schedule IV are also protected, but the penalties are much lower. Schedule V includes the animals which may be hunted.

It is possible to produce algae-based biofuels, but what is/are the likely limitation(s) of developing countries in promoting this industry?

1. Production of algae-based biofuels is possible in seas only and not on continents.
2. Setting up and engineering the algae-based biofuel production requires a high level of expertise/technology until the construction is completed.
3. Economically viable production necessitates the setting up of large scale facilities which may raise ecological and social concerns.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below. [UPSC 2017]

Statement 1 is incorrect - Production of algal biofuel is possible both in seas and on continents. They can grow on marginal or non-cropland and also on brackish or polluted water. Land-based systems are more developed then sea-based systems.

Statements 2 and 3 are correct - Developing and engineering ABB technology requires a high level of expertise until construction is finished. Innovation for higher productivity also requires some knowledge and/or experience. All Algal based biofuel concepts require significant capital investment. Access to this technology by the poor may be difficult. Large-scale facilities are more economically viable but are also more likely to have higher social and ecological impacts.

Which of the following is/are famous for Sun temples?

Select the correct answer using the code given below: [UPSC 2017]

The Sun Temple is situated in Arasavalli Village in Andhra Pradesh. Sun temples are not located in Amarkantak and Omkareshwar.

Was in news in 2017

Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a standard criterion for ___. [UPSC 2017]

Biological oxygen demand (BOD) is the amount of dissolved oxygen needed (i. e., demanded) by aerobic microorganisms to break down organic material present in a given water sample. A highly polluted water will have a high levels of biological oxygen demand (BOD). 

The term ‘M-STrIPES’ is sometimes seen in the news in the context of _________. [UPSC 2017]

Monitoring System for Tigers’- Intensive Protection and Ecological Status is a software monitoring system launched by the Indian Government in 2010 in some tiger reserves to reduce the vulnerability of Tigers. The system would enable field managers to assist the intensity and spatial coverage of patrols in a geographic information system (GIS) domain.

Was in news -Official launch of M-STrIPES (Monitoring System For Tigers Intensive Protection and Ecological Status) software enabled mobile app at Corbett Tiger Reserve.

Consider the following statements:

1. Tax revenue as a percent of GDP of India has steadily increased in the last decade.
2. Fiscal deficit as a percent of GDP of India has steadily increased in the last decade.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? [UPSC 2017]

Service tax, personal income tax and corporation tax have been reduced in the recent past to boost aggregate demand, so as to protect the economy from global recession. Excise duty rates have been reduced in the recent past to boost aggregate demand, so as to protect the economy from global recession hence tax revenue as a percent of GDP of India has steadily not increase in the last decade . Hence statement 1 is not correct.

Fiscal deficit as a percent of GDP of India has not steadily increased in the last decade. Hence statement 2 is not correct.

When balance of the government’s total receipts (i.e., revenue + capital receipts) and total expenditures (i.e., revenue + capital expenditures) turns out to be negative, it shows the situation of fiscal deficit, a concept being used since the fiscal 1997–98 in India. Fiscal deficit of the governments (Centre and States) has been rising continuously due to diverse socio-economic reasons. The issue has been hotly debated during the period of economic reforms (which will be discussed under a separate title on forthcoming pages). After the fiscal responsibility law was enacted in 2003, we find a concerted effort (fiscal consolidation) from the Government to contain it. Fiscal deficit of the Centre has been continuously falling since 2009–10 when it was at 6.6 per cent.

Present Status ( 2019-2020) - For the year 2020–21, the Union Budget 2020–21 has set a fiscal deficit target of 3.5 per cent (of the GDP) which was estimated to remain at 3.8 per cent for 2019–20. In 2019-20, Centre’s fiscal deficit was budgeted at Rs 7.04 lakh crore (3.3 per cent of GDP), as compared to Rs 6.49 lakh crore (3.4 per cent of GDP) in 2018-19 PA .

Net Tax revenue to the Centre, which was envisaged to grow at more than 25 per cent in 2019-20 BE relative to 2018-19 PA, grew at 2.6 per cent during April to November 2019, which was nearly half its’ growth rate for the corresponding period last year. This is primarily owing to low growth in Gross Tax Revenue (GTR) of 0.8 per cent during first eight months of 2019-20 vis-a-vis 7.1 per cent growth for the corresponding period in 2018-19

[ Ref : Economic Survey 2019-2020]

Consider the following statements

1. National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) helps in promoting the financial inclusion in the country.
2. NPCI has launched RuPay, a card payment scheme.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? [UPSC 2017]

(NPCI) is an umbrella organization for all retail payments system in India. It was set up with the guidance and support of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and Indian Banks’ Association (IBA). The core objective was to consolidate and integrate the multiple systems with varying service levels into nation-wide uniform and standard business process for all retail payment systems. The other objective was to facilitate an affordable payment mechanism to benefit the common man across the country and help financial inclusion. Thus statement 1 is correct.

It offers many products and services which include RuPay card, BHIM app, Unified payment interface, among others. Thus statement 2 is correct.

In the context of solving pollution problems, what is/are the advantage/advantages of bioremediation technique?

1. It is a technique for cleaning up pollution by enhancing the same biodegradation process that occurs in nature.
2. Any contaminant with heavy metals such as cadmium and lead can be readily and completely treated by bioremediation using microorganisms.
3. Genetic engineering can be used to create microorganisms specifically designed for bioremediation.

Select the correct answer using the code given below. [UPSC 2017]

Statement 1 is correct - Bioremediation is a treatment that uses naturally occurring organisms to break down hazardous substances into less toxic or non-toxic substances. It uses microorganisms to degrade organic contaminants in soil, groundwater, sludge, and solids. The microorganisms break down contaminants by using them as an energy source or metabolizing them with an energy source.

Statement 2 is not correct - Not all contaminants are easily treated by bioremediation using microorganisms. For example, heavy metals such as cadmium and lead are not readily absorbed or captured by microorganisms.

Statement 3 is correct - Genetic engineering has been used to create organisms designed for specific purposes. For e.g. bacterium Deinococcus radiodurans (the most radioresistant organism known) has been modified to consume and digest toluene and ionic mercury from highly radioactive nuclear waste.

Consider the following pairs Commonly used/consumed materials Unwanted or controversial chemicals likely to be found in them:

1. Lipstick – Lead
2. Soft drinks – Brominated vegetable oils
3. Chinese fast food – Monosodium glutamate

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? [UPSC 2017]

Lead is a common impurity found in cosmetic lip products, such as lipsticks, and other cosmetics, such as eye shadows, blushes, compact powders, shampoos, and body lotions.

Brominated vegetable oil is a food additive sometimes used to keep citrus flavouring from separating out in some sodas and soft drinks. It's banned as a food additive in Europe and Japan.

MSG is glutamate, or salt of glutamic acid, a “non-essential” amino acid. It is a neurotransmitter - transporting messages from one nerve cell to another. Because it is said to enhance flavours, some scientists believe it “excites nerve endings” and exhibits “neuro-excitatory properties”, that is the ability to stimulate neurons. It is commonly used in Chinese fast food. 

Which of the following is a most likely consequence of implementing the ‘Unified Payments Interface (UPI)’? [UPSC 2017]

UPI is a payment system that allows money transfer between any two bank accounts by using a smartphone. UPI allows a customer to pay directly from a bank account to different merchants, both online and offline, without the hassle of typing credit card details, IFSC code, or net banking/wallet passwords.

In India, it is legally mandatory for which of the following to report on cybersecurity incidents?

Select the correct answer using the code given below. [UPSC 2017]

The Indian Computer Emergency Response Team shall serve as the national agency for performing the following functions in the area of cybersecurity,–

(a) collection, analysis and dissemination of information on cyber incidents;

(b) forecast and alerts of cybersecurity incidents;

(c) emergency measures for handling cybersecurity incidents;

(d) coordination of cyber incidents response activities;

(e) issue guidelines, advisories, vulnerability notes and white papers relating to information security practices, procedures, prevention, response and reporting of cyber incidents;

(f) such other functions relating to cybersecurity as may be prescribed.

Any service provider, intermediaries, data centres, body corporate or person who fails to provide the information called for or comply with the above section shall be punishable with imprisonment for a term which may extend to one year or with fine which may extend to one lakh rupees or with both.

What is/are the advantage/ advantages of implementing the ‘National Agriculture Market’ scheme?

Select the correct answer using the code given below. [UPSC 2017]

1. It is a pan-India electronic trading portal for agricultural commodities.
2. It provides the farmers access to nationwide market, with prices commensurate with the quality of their produce.

National Agriculture Market (NAM) is a pan-India electronic trading portal which networks the existing APMC mandis to create a unified national market for agricultural commodities. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

NAM promotes uniformity, streamlining of procedures across the integrated markets, removes information asymmetry between buyers and sellers and promotes real-time price discovery, based on actual demand and supply, promotes transparency in the auction process, and access to a nationwide market for the farmer, with prices commensurate with the quality of his produce and online payment and availability of better quality produce and at more reasonable prices to the consumer. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

What is the purpose of setting up of Small Finance Banks (SFBs) in India?

Select the correct answer using the code given below: [UPSC 2017]

The objectives of setting up of small finance banks will be to further financial inclusion by-

(i) provision of savings vehicles, and

(ii) supply of credit to small business units; small and marginal farmers; micro and small industries; and other unorganised sector entities, through high technology-low cost operations.

Therefore statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Consider the following statements:

1. India has ratified the Trade Facilitation Agreement (TFA) of WTO.
2. TFA is a part of WTO’s Bali Ministerial Package of 2013.
3. TFA came into force in January 2016.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? [UPSC 2017]

The TFA is the WTO’s first-ever multilateral accord that aims to simplify customs regulations for the cross-border movement of goods. It was outcome of WTO’s 9th Bali (Indonesia) ministerial package of 2013. India ratified it in April 2016. It came into force in February 2017. Thus statement 3 is not correct.

Which one of the following was a very important seaport in the Kakatiya Kingdom? [UPSC 2017]

Motupalli was the chief port of the Kakatiyas and this port was visited by the Venitian traveller, Marco Polo.

Who among the following can join the National Pension System (NPS)? [UPSC 2017]

NPS (National Pension System) is a defined contribution based Pension Scheme launched by Government of India. Eligibility- - NPS is applicable to all new employees of Central Government service (except Armed Forces) and Central Autonomous Bodies joining Government service on or after 1st January 2004. - NPS is applicable to all the employees of State Governments, State Autonomous Bodies joining services after the date of notification by the respective State Governments. - However, since 2009, All citizens of India between the age of 18 and 60 years as on the date of submission of his / her application to Point of Presence (POP) / Point of Presence-Service Provider (POP-SP) can join NPS. Recently, NRIs were also allowed to open National Pension Scheme (NPS) accounts online.

The Mediterranean Sea is a border of which of the following countries?

Select the correct answer using the codes given below: [UPSC 2017]

The countries with coastlines on the Mediterranean Sea are Albania, Algeria, Bosnia and Herzegovina, Croatia, Cyprus, Egypt, France, Greece, Israel, Italy, Lebanon, Libya, Malta, Morocco, Monaco, Montenegro, Slovenia, Spain, Syria, Tunisia and Turkey. In addition, the Gaza Strip and the British Overseas Territories of Gibraltar and Akrotiri and Dhekelia have coastlines on the sea. On the Eastern shore, Turkey, Syria, Lebanon and Israel have their coastline on the Mediterranean Sea.

The object of the Butler Committee of 1927 was to ____. [UPSC 2017]

The Report of the Butler Committee on the relations between the Indian States and British India. The Committee advise that the Viceroy (instead of the Governor-General in Council) should represent the Crown in all dealings with the States. This proposed change is comparable with the new Imperial arrangement by which the Governor-General of a Dominion is High Commissioner for the Dominion's Protectorates. The Committee sympathize with the fear of the Native Princes that their States might pass without their consent under a new Government in British India responsible to an Indian Legislature, and they plainly express the opinion that no such transference should be made without the consent of the Princes.

Consider the following statements:

1. Climate and Clean Air Coalition (CCAC) to Reduce Short-Lived Climate Pollutants is a unique initiative of the G20 group of countries.
2. The CCAC focuses on methane, black carbon and hydro-fluorocarbons.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? [UPSC 2017]

The Climate & Clean Air Coalition is the only global effort that unites governments, civil society and private sector, committed to improving air quality and protecting the climate in next few decades by reducing short-lived climate pollutants across sectors. The Coalition's initial focus is on methane, black carbon, and HFCs. The governments of Bangladesh, Canada, Ghana, Mexico, Sweden and the United States, along with the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP), came together to initiate the first effort to treat these pollutants as a collective challenge. The coalition has 53 country partners and 17 International Governmental Organizations and 45 Nongovernmental organization, partners.

India is not a partner country however The Energy and Resources Institute (TERI ) is a partner NGO since 2015.

Present Status - India has formally joined the Climate & Clean Air Coalition (CCAC), becoming the 65th country to join the partnership. India plans to work with Climate and Clean Air Coalition countries on best practices and experiences for the effective implementation of India’s National Clean Air Programme (NCAP).

Launched in January 2019, the NCAP is a comprehensive strategy with actions to prevent, control and reduce air pollution and improve air quality monitoring across the country. It aims to reduce fine particulate (PM2.5) and particulate (PM10) air pollution by 20 per cent–30 per cent by 2024. India has identified 102 non-attainment cities, with city-specific action plans being formulated. Clean air and climate-friendly technologies will be at the forefront of sustainable development for all countries; India is a global leader in the development of technologies, infrastructure and policies in this field.

Local self-government can be best explained as an exercise in ________. [UPSC 2017]

In January 1957, the Government of India appointed a committee to examine the working of the Community Development Programme (1952) and the National Extension Service (1953) and to suggest measures for their better working. The chairman of this committee was Balwant Rai G Mehta. The committee submitted its report in November 1957 and recommended the establishment of the scheme of ‘democratic decentralisation’, which ultimately came to be known as Panchayati Raj.

With reference to the ‘Quality Council of India (QCI)’, consider the following statements:

1. QCI was set up jointly by the Government of India and the Indian Industry.
2. Chairman of QCI is appointed by the Prime Minister on the recommendations of the industry to the Government.

Which of the above statements is/are correct? [UPSC 2017]

Quality Council of India (QCI) was set up jointly by the Government of India and the Indian Industry represented by the three premier industry associations i.e. Associated Chambers of Commerce and Industry of India (ASSOCHAM), Confederation of Indian Industry (CII) and Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry (FICCI), to establish and operate national accreditation structure and promote quality through National Quality Campaign. Chairman of QCI is appointed by the Prime Minister on the recommendation of the industry to the government. The Department of Industrial Policy & Promotion, Ministry of Commerce & Industry, is the nodal ministry for QCI.

The Trade Disputes Act of 1929 provided for ___________. [UPSC 2017]

Trade Disputes Act (TDA), 1929.

● made compulsory the appointment of Courts of Inquiry and Consultation Boards for settling industrial disputes;

● made illegal the strikes in public utility services like posts, railways, water and electricity, unless each individual worker planning to go on strike gave advance notice of one month to the administration;

● forbade trade union activity of coercive or purely political nature and even sympathetic strikes.

Consider the following statements:

1. The Factories Act, 1881 was passed with a view to fix the wages of industrial workers and to allow the workers to form trade unions.
2. N. M. Lokhande was a pioneer in organizing the labour movement in British India.

Which of the above statements is/are correct? [UPSC 2017]

To improve a lot of the factory workers in towns, Lord Ripon passed the first Factory Act in 1881. The Act prohibited the employment of children under the age of seven, limited the number of working hours for children below the age of twelve and required that dangerous machinery should be fenced properly. The Act also made provision for one hour rest during the working period and four days leave in a month for the workers. Inspectors were appointed to supervise the implementation of these measures. Hence there is no provision for fixed-wage and formation of trade unions.

Narayan Meghaji Lokhande was a pioneer of the labour movement in India. He is remembered not only for ameliorating the working conditions of textile mill-hands in the 19th century but also for his courageous initiatives on caste and communal issues.

What is the aim of the programme ‘Unnat Bharat Abhiyan’? [UPSC 2017]

The conceptualization of Unnat Bharat Abhiyan started with the initiative of a group of dedicated faculty members of Indian Institute of Technology (IIT) Delhi working for long in the area of rural development and appropriate technology. The concept was nurtured through wide consultation with the representatives of a number of technical institutions, Rural Technology Action Group (RuTAG) coordinators, voluntary organizations and government agencies, actively involved in rural development work, during a National workshop held at IIT Delhi in September 2014. The workshop was sponsored by the Council for Advancement of People’s Action and Rural Technology (CAPART), Ministry of Rural Development, Govt. of India. The program was formally launched by the Ministry of Education (MoE) (formerly Ministry Human Resource Development (MHRD)) in presence of The President of India on 11th November 2014.

Recently there was a proposal to translocate some of the lions from their natural habitat in Gujarat to which one of the following sites? [UPSC 2017]

An environment ministry’s expert committee approved Kuno Palpur in Madhya Pradesh as the second home for Asiatic lions found only in Gir national park. However, the Gujarat government will not share lions unless 33 studies as mandated by international wildlife watchdog IUCN is completed.

The term ‘Domestic Content Requirement’ is sometimes seen in the news with reference to ________. [UPSC 2017]

‘Domestic Content Requirement’, recently in news, is related to the development of solar power production. The World Trade Organization had ruled against India's domestic content policy for solar cells and modules; India appealed the ruling in a bid to keep DCR rules in place for government procurement. The case against India was originally filed in 2013, following the announcement of DCR in JNNSM Phase II policy and after India decided to file an antidumping case against the U.S., China, Malaysia and Taiwan.

Consider the following pairs: Traditions - Communities

1. Chaliha Sahib Festival – Sindhis
2. Nanda Raj Jaat Yatra – Gonds
3. Wari -Warkari - Santhals

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? [UPSC 2017]

Pair 1 is matched correctly: Chalia sahib is the festival of the Sindhis which involves devotees fasting for days.

Pair 2 is not matched correctly: The Nanda Devi Jat is celebrated every year in the Nanda Devi temples spread across Garhwal and Kumaon. The festival commences on the day earmarked for Devi’s visit to her maiti or parents’ home and culminates with the return to her husband’s home. This tradition is beautifully expressed in the folk songs of Uttarakhand.

Pair 3 is not matched correctly: Pandharpur Wari or Wari (Vari) is an annual pilgrimage to Pandharpur - the seat of the god Vithoba in Maharashtra, in honour of the deity. Palakhiscarrying the paduka (footprints) of various saints - most notably Dnyaneshwar and Tukaram - from the Warkari sect are taken from their respective shrines to Pandharpur.

What is the purpose of ‘Vidyanjali Yojana’?

1. To enable the famous foreign educational institutions to open their campuses in India.
2. To increase the quality of education provided in government schools by taking help from the private sector and the community.
3. To encourage voluntary monetary contributions from private individuals and organizations so as to improve the infrastructure facilities for primary and secondary schools.

Select the correct answer using the code given below. [UPSC 2017]

The Ministry of HRD recently launched the Vidyanjali scheme aimed at boosting the education system by delivering volunteer teachers to government schools. It will not replace regular and professionally qualified teachers in government schools. The volunteer's responsibility is towards overall development of the child, not academics. The volunteer service will be used in developing skills like public speaking, creative writing, counseling, music and dance.

Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding Smart India Hackathon 2017?

1. It is a centrally sponsored scheme for developing every city of our country into Smart Cities in a decade.
2. It is an initiative to identify new digital technology innovations for solving the many problems faced by our country.
3. It is a programme aimed at making all the financial transactions in our country completely digital in a decade.

Select the correct answer using the code given below: [UPSC 2017]

Smart India Hackathon 2017 was a 36 hrs non-stop digital product development competition during which teams of thousands of technology students built innovative digital solutions for the problems posted by 29 different central govt. ministries/ departments e.g. Ministry of Railways, External Affairs, Ministry of Defense, ISRO, Ministry of Tourism, Dept. of Atomic Energy, etc. Smart India Hackathon 2017, has been launched to build Digital India and to engage the youth directly with nation-building. For the first time, govt. departments were directly engaging with students and challenging them to build digital solutions to improve their efficiency, plug revenue leakages and corruption.

With reference to ‘Asia Pacific Ministerial Conference on Housing and Urban Development (APMCHUD)’, consider the following statements:

1. The first APMCHUD was held in India in 2006 on the theme ‘Emerging Urban Forms – Policy Responses and Governance Structure’.
2. India hosts all the Annual Ministerial Conferences in partnership with ADB, APEC and ASEAN.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? [UPSC 2017]

The 1st APMCHUD was held in New Delhi, India from 13th-16th December 2006 on the theme of ‘A Vision for Sustainable Urbanization in the Asia-Pacific by 2020’. ‘Emerging Urban Forms – Policy Responses and Governance Structure’ was the theme of the 6th Asia Pacific Conference on Housing and Urban Development held in December 2016. 2nd APMCHUD was held in Tehran, the Islamic Republic of Iran, 3rd in Solo, Republic of Indonesia, 4th in Amman, Hashemite Kingdom of Jordan and 5th in Seoul, Republic of Korea. Further, APMCHUD is a consultative mechanism on the promotion of sustainable development of Housing and Urban Development in the AsiaPacific Region established under the aegis and support of UNHabitat.

6th Asia Pacific Conference on Housing and Urban Development held in December 2016.

Consider the following in respect of ‘National Career Services’:

1. National Career Service is an initiative of the Department of Personnel and Training, Government of India.
2. National Career Service has been launched in a Mission Mode to improve the employment opportunities to uneducated youth of the country.

Which of the above statements is/are correct? [UPSC 2017]

National Career Service (NCS) project is an initiative launched by the Ministry of Labour and Employment (India) Government of India as a Mission Mode Project for establishing quick and efficient career-related services. Hence statement 1 is not correct.

The main stakeholders for the NCS would include:

• Unemployed candidates seeking jobs
• Students seeking career counselling
• Candidates seeking vocational/occupational guidance
• Illiterate, underprivileged sections of society, blue-collar workers seeking placements and guidance
• Person with different abilities (PWDs), ex-servicemen, veterans / senior citizens, etc.
• Employers seeking suitable candidates.

Thus statement 2 is correct.