UPSC Prelims 2016 Solutions

Consider the following statements: Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. The minimum age prescribed for any person to be a member of Panchayat is 25 years.
2. A Panchayat reconstituted after premature dissolution continues only for the remainder period.

Statement 1 is incorrect - The minimum age prescribed for any person to be a member of Panchayat is 21 years.

Statement 2 is correct - A Panchayat reconstituted after premature dissolution (i.e., before the expiry of the full period of five years) shall continue only for the remainder of the period. But if the remainder of the period is less than six months it shall not be necessary to hold elections.

Consider the following statements : Which of the statements given below is/are correct?

Statement 1 is ambiguous and debatable. Statement 1 - Arguments that the Governor appoints the Chief Secretary (CS) are: An appointment order is: Essentially an executive action published in the State Gazette notification is officially taken in the name of the Governor as all executive actions of a State government ought to be. He is the highest officer of the state and the Governor should ideally be the appointing authority of the Chief Secretary. So, even if CM “de facto” appoints the Chief Secretary, “de jure” appointment is made by the Governor, which should make statement 1 correct. But, clearly, it’s CM who selects and appoints CS of his state. We are going with Option A because the given statement is not ‘incorrect’ per se (He selects or not, he does appoint CS) If there was absolutely NO ROLE involved from the Governor, the statement would be definitely incorrect.

Statement 2 is incorrect - There is no fixed tenure for the post of Chief Secretary. In this context, the Administrative Reforms Commission, in its report on State Administration in 1969, had recommended that a Chief Secretary should have a minimum tenure of three to four years.

With reference to the ‘Gram Nyayalaya Act’, which of the following statements is/are correct? Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. As per the Act, Gram Nyayalayas can hear only civil cases and not criminal cases.
2. The Act allows local social activists as mediators/reconciliators.

The Gram Nyayalayas Act, 2008 has been enacted to provide for the establishment of the Gram Nyayalayas at the grassroots level for the purposes of providing access to justice to the citizens at their doorsteps and to ensure that opportunities for securing justice are not denied to any citizen due to social, economic or other disabilities.

Statement 1 is incorrect - The Gram Nyayalaya shall be a mobile court and shall exercise the powers of both Criminal and Civil Courts. The Gram Nyayalaya shall try criminal cases, civil suits, claims or disputes which are specified in the First Schedule and the Second Schedule to the Act.

Statement 2 is correct - The Gram Nyayalaya shall try to settle the disputes as far as possible by bringing about conciliation between the parties and for this purpose, it shall make use of the conciliators to be appointed for this purpose. We are quoting from the Gram Nyayalayas Act, 2008

“Section 27(1) For the purposes of section 26, the District Court shall, in consultation with the Appointment District Magistrate, prepare a panel consisting of the names of social workers at the village level having integrity for appointment as Conciliators who possess such qualifications and experience as may be prescribed by the High Court.”

The Parliament of India acquires the power to legislate on any item in the State List in the national interest if a resolution to that effect is passed by the

The Constitution empowers the Parliament to make laws on any matter enumerated in the State List, if Rajya Sabha approves a resolution with special majority and declares that a subject is of national interest, the Parliament can make a law on the particular subject in the state list (7 Schedule). Such a resolution must be supported by two-thirds of the members present and voting. The resolution remains in force for one year; it can be renewed any number of times but not exceeding one year at a time. The laws cease to have effect on the expiration of six months after the resolution has ceased to be in force. 

This provision does not restrict the power of a state legislature to make laws on the same matter. But, in case of inconsistency between a state law and a parliamentary law, the latter is to prevail.

Which of the following statements is/are correct? Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. A Bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its prorogation.
2. A Bill pending in the Rajya Sabha, which has not been passed by the Lok Sabha, shall not lapse on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.

Statement 1 is incorrect - Prorogation does not affect the bills or any other business pending before the House. It is the pending notices (other than those for introducing bills) that lapse on prorogation and fresh notices have to be given for the next session.

Statement 2 is correct - A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses (whether originating in the Lok Sabha or transmitted to it by the Rajya Sabha). A bill passed by the Lok Sabha but pending in the Rajya Sabha lapses. A bill pending in the Rajya Sabha but not passed by the Lok Sabha does not lapse. A bill passed by both Houses but pending assent of the president does not lapse.

‘Mission Indradhanush’ launched by the Government of India pertains to ________. [UPSC 2016]

Mission Indradhanush: It was launched by Ministry of Health and Family Welfare on 25th Dec 2014. The objective is to ensure that all children under the age of two years as well as pregnant women are fully immunized with seven vaccine preventable diseases. By 2020, provide vaccination to all children who are either unvaccinated or partially vaccinated against: Diptheria, Pertussis (Whooping cough) Tetanus, Tuberculosis, Polio, Measles and Hepatitis B The aim is to reach atleast 90% vaccination. At present (2016) the immunisation is around 65%.

To further intensify the immunization programme, Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi launched the Intensified Mission Indradhanush (IMI) on October 8, 2017. Through this programme, Government of India aims to reach each and every child up to two years of age and all those pregnant women who have been left uncovered under the routine immunisation programme/UIP. The focus of special drive was to improve immunisation coverage in select districts and cities to ensure full immunisation to more than 90% by December 2018.

Under IMI, four consecutive immunization rounds were conducted for 7 days in 173 districts (121 districts and 17 cities in 16 states and 52 districts in 8 northeastern states) every month between October 2017 and January 2018. Intensified Mission Indradhanush has covered low performing areas in the selected districts (high priority districts) and urban areas. Special attention was given to unserved/low coverage pockets in sub-centre and urban slums with migratory population. The focus was also on the urban settlements and cities identified under National Urban Health Mission (NUHM).

To boost the routine immunization coverage in the country, Government of India has introduced Intensified Mission Indradhanush 2.0 to ensure reaching the unreached with all available vaccines and accelerate the coverage of children and pregnant women in the identified districts and blocks from December 2019-March 2020.

The IMI 2.0 aims to achieve targets of full immunization coverage in 272 districts in 27 States and at block level (652 blocks) in Uttar Pradesh and Bihar among hard-to-reach and tribal populations.

 With the launch of Intensified Mission Indradhanush 2.0, India has the opportunity to achieve further reductions in deaths among children under five years of age, and achieve the Sustainable Development Goal of ending preventable child deaths by 2030.

Several ministries, including the Ministry of Women and Child Development, Panchayati Raj, Ministry of Urban Development, Ministry of Youth Affairs and others have come together to make the mission a resounding success and support the central government in ensuring the benefits of vaccines reach the last mile.

Regarding the taxation system of Krishna Deva, the ruler of Vijayanagar, consider the following statements:

1. The tax rate on land was fixed depending on the quality of the land.
2. Private owners of workshops paid an industries tax.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? [UPSC 2016]

Vijayanagara rulers followed an oppressive taxation policy. The prosperity of the empire can be explained through their taxation principles in the following lines. They collected a variety of taxes ranging on the nature of lands. The villages were classified into eight types for tax purpose. They were:

1)The brahmadeya villages.

2) The devadana villages.

3) The mathapura villages.

4) The sarvamanya villages.

5) The kodagi lands.

6) Rakta-kodagal lands.

7) Guttagi lands.

8) The rest of the villages or lands.

The first four types prevailed prior to the Vijayanagar times. Private owners also paid industries taxes. Merchant guilds were empowered to levy taxes on goods manufactured, sold or transported.

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

Proper design and effective implementation of UNREDD+ Programme can significantly contribute to

1. protection of biodiversity.
2. resilience of forest ecosystems.
3. poverty reduction.

Select the correct answer using the code given below. [UPSC 2016]

Statement 3 was debatable, but we are posting verbatim from the source below,

The UN-REDD Programme has identified the following three topics for supporting national REDD+ governance structures, with an overarching principle of stakeholder participation:

• Country-led multi-stakeholder governance assessments that contribute to the development and implementation of national REDD+ strategies and nationally owned monitoring frameworks.

• Social standards, including poverty and gender.

• Land and/or carbon tenure and the role of REDD+ within national land-use strategies.

Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and Forest Degradation (REDD) attempts to create financial value for the carbon stored in forests, offering incentives for developing countries to reduce emissions from forested lands and invest in low-carbon paths to sustainable development. REDD+ goes beyond deforestation and forest degradation and includes the role of conservation, sustainable management of forests and enhancement of forest carbon stocks. It is predicted that financial flows for greenhouse gas emission reductions from REDD+ could reach up to US$30 billion a year. This significant north-south flow of funds could reward a meaningful reduction of carbon emissions and support new, pro-poor development, help conserve biodiversity and secure vital ecosystem services.

Which of the following best describes/describe the aim of ‘Green India Mission’ of the Government of India? Select the correct answer using the code given below. [UPSC 2016]

1. Incorporating environmental benefits and costs into the Union and State Budgets thereby implementing the `green accounting’.
2. Launching the second green revolution to enhance agricultural output so as to ensure food security to one and all in the future.
3. Restoring and enhancing forest cover and responding to climate change by a combination of adaptation and mitigation measures.

The National Mission for Green India (GIM) is one of the eight Missions outlined under the National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC). It aims at protecting; restoring and enhancing India’s diminishing forest cover and responding to climate change by a combination of adaptation and mitigation measures. It envisages a holistic view of greening and focuses on multiple ecosystem services, especially, biodiversity, water, biomass, preserving mangroves, wetlands, critical habitats etc. along with carbon sequestration as a co-benefit.

Statements 1 and 2 are not the aims of Green India Mission.

Recently, linking of which of the following rivers was undertaken? [UPSC 2016]

The plan is to eventually divert water from the Polavaram dam since the dam is still under construction and will take at least 4 to 5 years to be ready, the Chandrababu Naidu government decided to divert Godavari water from the Pattiseema Lift Irrigation Scheme. This plan kicked off on September 16, 2015.

Consider the following pairs: Community sometimes mentioned in the news/In the affairs of

1. Kurd: Bangladesh
2. Madhesi: Nepal
3. Rohingya: Myanmar

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? [UPSC 2016]

The Madhesi also referred to as Teraibasi Nepali are an indigenous ethnic group of Nepalese people who are natives of the Madhesh plains of Southern Nepal in Terai belt of South Asia. Between 25 and 35 million.

Kurds inhabit a mountainous region straddling the borders of Turkey, Iraq, Syria, Iran and Armenia. They make up the fourth-largest ethnic group in the Middle East, but they have never obtained a permanent nation-state.

The Rohingya are an ethnic Muslim minority in the majority of Buddhist Myanmar. Many of their enemies refuse to acknowledge that the Rohingya are an ethnically distinct group. They claim instead that the Rohingya are Bengali and that their presence in Myanmar is the result of illegal immigration (more on that later). The Rohingya, for their part, claim to be pre-colonial residents of Myanmar’s Rakhine state, the Middle East Institute explains, with the earliest known appearance of the term Rohingya in 1799.

Which of the following is not a member of `Gulf Cooperation Council’? [UPSC 2016]

The Cooperation Council for the Arab States of the Gulf, originally known as the Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC), is a regional intergovernmental political and economic union consisting of all Arab states of the Persian Gulf, except for Iraq. Its member states are Bahrain, Kuwait, Oman, Qatar, Saudi Arabia, and the United Arab Emirates.

The question asked in UPSC 2016 as It was in the news in 2015 constantly due to Indian Prime Minister's visit to UAE and Saudi Arabia to give a spur to India and GCC countries; US President attended GCC Summit.

In the cities of our country, which among the following atmospheric gases are normally considered in calculating the value of Air Quality Index?

Select the correct answer using the code given below. [UPSC 2016]

National Air Quality Index: There are six AQI categories, namely Good, Satisfactory, Moderately polluted, Poor, Very Poor, and Severe.

The AQI considers eight pollutants (PM10, PM2.5, NO₂, SO₂, CO, O₃, NH₃, and Pb) for which short-term (up to 24-hourly averaging period) National Ambient Air Quality Standards are prescribed. An important initiative of Minister for Environment, Forests & Climate Change. Also remained in news due to high Particulate matters in many cities.

‘Doctors Without Borders (Medecins Sans Frontieres)’, often in the news, is ____. [UPSC 2016]

It is an international humanitarian-aid non-governmental organization (NGO) and Nobel Peace Prize laureate, best known for it's projects in war-torn regions and developing countries facing endemic diseases. It was founded in France in response to the Biafran War (Nigerian Civil War).

Médecins Sans Frontières (MSF) or Doctors without Borders, an international NGO has warned India that it will no more remain ‘the pharmacy of the developing world’ if the proposed proposals in the Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP) agreement are adopted.

Which of the following statements is/are correct?

Viruses can infect___.

1. bacteria.
2. fungi.
3. plants.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Viruses are known to infect almost any kind of host that has living cells. Animals, plants, fungi, and bacteria are all subject to viral infection. A bacteriophage is a virus that infects and replicates within a bacterium. Mycoviruses are viruses that infect fungi. A host of other Viruses affect plants.

Viruses are too small to be seen by the naked eye. They can't multiply on their own, so they have to invade a 'host' cell and take over its machinery in order to be able to make more virus particles.Virus infects all of the given organisms (Bacteria, Fungi and Plant). Mycoviruses are viruses that infect fungi. The majority of mycoviruses have double stranded RNA (dsRNA) genomes. Many different viruses can infect plants. Certain crops are well known to be affected by virus diseases including geraniums, roses, Easter lilies, dahlias, gladiolus, and tulips. The Virus that Infects Bacteria. Coliphage T4 is a virus that looks like an alien landing pod. With its six legs, the bacteriophage attaches to the surface of the much larger bacteria Escherichia coli (E. coli). Once attached, the bacteriophage injects DNA into the bacterium.

With reference to the ‘Trans-Pacific Partnership’, consider the following statements:

1. It is an agreement among all the Pacific Rim countries except China and Russia.
2. It is a strategic alliance for the purpose of maritime security only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? [UPSC 2016]

The Trans-Pacific Partnership was signed by only 12 member nations of Pacific rim, not all the Pacific Rim countries except China and Russia. The members are: Australia, Brunei, Canada, Chile, Japan, Malaysia, Mexico, New Zealand, Peru, Singapore, the United States and Vietnam. It is not a strategic alliance. It is a trade alliance.

Therefore, both statements are incorrect.

What is ‘Greased Lightning-10 (GL-10)’, recently in the news? [UPSC 2016]

As per the NASA Website, it is in testing and development phase. The website says. “Imagine a battery-powered plane that has 10 engines and can take off like a helicopter and fly efficiently like an aircraft. That is a concept being developed by NASA researchers called Greased Lightning or GL-10.”

In the context of the developments in Bioinformatics, the term ‘transcriptome’, sometimes seen in the news, refers to____. [UPSC 2016]

Bioinformatics refers to the application of computer technology to the management of biological information.

A transcriptome is the full range of messenger RNA, or mRNA, molecules expressed by an organism. The term “transcriptome” can also be used to describe the array of mRNA transcripts produced in a particular cell or tissue type. In contrast with the genome, which is characterized by it's stability, the transcriptome actively changes. In fact, an organism’s transcriptome varies depending on many factors, including stage of development and environmental conditions.

India is an important member of the ‘International Thermonuclear Experimental Reactor’. If this experiment succeeds, what is the immediate advantage for India? [UPSC 2016]

ITER (International Thermonuclear Experimental Reactor) is an international nuclear fusion research and engineering megaproject, which will be the world's largest magnetic confinement plasma physics experiment. 35 nations are collaborating to build the world’s largest tokamak, a magnetic fusion device that has been designed to prove the feasibility of fusion as a large-scale and carbon-free source of energy based on the same principle that powers our Sun and stars. The ITER Members—China, the European Union, India, Japan, Korea, Russia and the United States—are now engaged in a 35-year collaboration to build and operate the ITER experimental device, and together bring fusion to the point where a demonstration fusion reactor can be designed.

With reference to `Astrosat’, the astronomical observatory launched by India, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. Other than the USA and Russia, India is the only country to have launched a similar observatory into space.
2. Astrosat is a 2000 kg satellite placed in an orbit at 1650 km above the surface of the Earth.

Select the correct answer using the code given below. [UPSC 2016]

ASTROSAT is India’s first dedicated multi wavelength space observatory. ASTROSAT will observe universe in the optical, Ultraviolet, low and high energy X-ray regions of the electromagnetic spectrum. India’s observatory will be the fourth in space, after the Hubble(USA), Russia’s Spektr R and Suzaku of Japan. ASTROSAT with a lift-off mass of about 1513 kg was launched into a 650 km orbit inclined at an angle of 6 deg to the equator by PSLV-C30. ASTROSAT will observe universe in the optical, Ultraviolet, low and high energy X-ray regions of the electromagnetic spectrum, whereas most other scientific satellites are capable of observing a narrow range of wavelength band.

Statement 1 is incorrect - This is the first time ISRO is launching a space observatory into space. Before India, NASA, space agencies of the European Union, Japan and Russia have launched similar facilities into the space.

Statement 2 is incorrect - ASTROSAT with a lift-off mass of about 1513 kg was launched into a 650 km orbit (polar).

Consider the following statements:

The Mangalyaan launched by ISRO

1. is also called the Mars Orbiter Mission.
2. made India the second country to have a spacecraft orbit the Mars after USA.
3. made India the only country to be successful in making it's spacecraft orbit the Mars in it's very first attempt.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? [UPSC 2016]

Statements 1 and 3 are correct. The Mars Orbiter Mission (MOM) has various achievements to its credit after it was inserted into Mars orbit on September 24, 2014. The details of significant achievements of MOM include

1. First interplanetary mission realized by India and first Indian spacecraft to incorporate full scale onboard autonomy to overcome the long distances and the communication gaps due to non-visibility periods.
2. First Indian spacecraft to successfully survive Van Allen belt crossing 39 times.
3. First Indian spacecraft to escape the Sphere Of Influence of Earth and orbit Sun.
4. First Mars mission in the world to succeed Mars Orbit Insertion in first attempt.
5. Most economical interplanetary mission in the world and paved way for cost effective access to deep space. The launch vehicle, Spacecraft and Ground Segment have been realised with a budget of Rs 450 Cr.

Statement 2 is incorrect - Since the first successful flyby in 1965, four entities have successfully made it to Mars: NASA, the Soviet Union, the European Space Agency and the Indian Space Research Organization, while others, including Japan and China, have tried.

With reference to ‘Li-Fi’, recently in the news, which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It uses light as the medium for high-speed data transmission.
2. It is a wireless technology and is several times faster than ‘WiFi’.

Select the correct answer using the code given below. [UPSC 2016]

Using light to deliver wireless internet will also allow connectivity in environments that do not currently readily support Wi-Fi, such as aircraft cabins, hospitals and hazardous environments. Light is already used for data transmission in fibre-optic cables and for point to point links, but Li-Fi is a special and novel combination of technologies that allow it to be universally adopted for mobile ultra high speed internet communications. Using the visible light spectrum, Li-Fi technology can transmit data and unlock capacity which is 10,000 times greater than that available within the radio spectrum.

Why does the Government of India promote the use of Neem-coated Urea’ in agriculture? [UPSC 2016]

Urea is an important supplier of nitrogen, which is necessary for the development of plants. But only 30-40 per cent of nitrogen present in the urea is utilised by crops. The rest gets degraded. When ordinary urea is applied, it gets converted to ammonium carbamate. Some of this gets converted to ammonia gas in what is called ammonia volatilisation. About 8-10 per cent nitrogen is lost during volatilization. The rest of the ammonium carbamate undergoes chemical transformation and nitrates are formed. Some of these are absorbed by the plants. The rest are either leached into the underground water or are denitrified to gaseous nitrogen and nitrous oxide under anaerobic conditions (absence of oxygen). Neem has properties that check nitrogen loss at each stage. It slows down the process of nitrate formation and hence excess nitrate is not available for denitrification. When farmers use this urea, the slow release of nitrogen helps the fertility of the soil. Therefore, there will be more yield to the extent of 15-20%. Also, the higher usage of neem-coated urea would check diversion of urea for industrial use. Neem coated urea also works as insecticide.

With reference to pre-packaged items in India, it is mandatory to the manufacturer to put which of the following information on the main label, as per the Food Safety and Standards (Packaging and Labelling) Regulations, 2011?

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. List of ingredients including additives.
2. Nutrition information.
3. Recommendations, if any, made by the medical profession about the possibility of any allergic reactions.
4. Vegetarian/non-vegetarian.

Every pre-packaged items in India the following information on the label:

1. Name of the food

2. list of ingredients

3. declaration of food additives

4. Net quantity or net weight

5. Batch identification

6. Name and address of the manufacturer

7. Date Marking

8. Veg/ Non veg declaration

Recently, India’s first ‘National Investment and Manufacturing Zone’ was proposed to be set up in ___. [UPSC 2016]

Andhra Pradesh is set to house India's first national investment and manufacturing zone after the state assured the Centre of availability of 10 sq km of land in one place in Prakasham district. The imminent final approval for the NIMZ, which is expected to give a fillip to Make in India campaign, comes four years after the concept was mooted to boost manufacturing in the country and two years after the Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion gave an in-principle nod to Andhra Pradesh in this regard. 

[Ref : https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/andhra-pradesh/nimz-works-gain-pace-in-prakasam-district/article8030363.ece]

Present Status(Dec 2019) -Government notified the National Manufacturing Policy(NMP) in 2011. The Policy is based on the principle of industrial growth in partnership with the States. National Investment & Manufacturing Zones (NIMZs) are one of the important instruments of the policy. Government has already granted final approval to the NIMZ in Sangareddy district, Telangana. Further, the proposal for granting final approval of establishment of Hyderabad Pharma City NIMZ in Rangareddy district, Telangana has been considered and recommended by the High Level Committee (HLC).

Consider the following statements:

1. New Development Bank has been set up by APEC.
2. The headquarters of New Development Bank is in Shanghai.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? [UPSC 2016]

Together with the process of globalisation world regional forces have also been asserting their power through different short of alignments—the Fortaleza Declaration of heads of state (late July 2014) from Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa (the BRICS countries) is another such attempt—creation of a BRICS Bank i.e., New Development Bank (NDB).

To begin with, the Bank will start operating with $50 billion in initial capital with the five BRICS contributing $10 billion each. According to the pact, the capital of the Bank will be divided equally among the five participating nations and initially, it will focus on infrastructure projects member countries. The headquarters of the Bank will be located in Shanghai, China.

Eminent banker Kundapur Vaman Kamath was appointed as first President New Development Bank (NDB) of BRICS nations. The Bank shall mobilize resources for infrastructure and sustainable development projects in BRICS and other emerging economies and developing countries, complementing the existing efforts of multilateral and regional financial institutions for global growth and development Unlike the World Bank, which assigns votes based on capital share, in the New Development Bank each participant country will be assigned one vote, and none of the countries will have veto power.

Recently, which one of the following currencies has been proposed to be added to the basket of IMF’s SDR? [UPSC 2016]

The Executive Board of the International Monetary Fund decided to include the Chinese currency, the renminbi (yuan), into its basket of currencies that make up the IMF’s Special Drawing Right (SDR). The decision was taken during the IMF’s five-yearly review of the basket of currencies.

SDRs are artificial currency created to augment international liquidity. It is neither a currency nor a claim on IMF rather it supplements the existing reserves of member countries of IMF. To be included as SDR a currency must be freely usable, widely used and widely traded. U.S. dollar, the euro, British pound and the Japanese yen form the SDR basket. IMF has decided to include Yuan in the SDR basket with effect from October 1, 2016. The respective weights of the U.S. dollar, euro, Chinese renminbi, Japanese yen, and pound sterling are 41.73 percent, 30.93 percent, 10.92 percent, 8.33 percent.

Consider the following statements:

1. The Sustainable Development Goals were first proposed in 1972 by a global think tank called the ‘Club of Rome’.
2. The Sustainable Development Goals have to be achieved by 2030.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? [UPSC 2016]

Statement 1 is not correct - The ‘Club of Rome’ is a global think tank which in its 1972 book “Limits to Growth” talked about sustainability; however, they didn't propose Sustainable Development Goals. As per the resolution of UN General Assembly in September 2015 the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) have been adopted by 193 member nations.

Statement 2 is correct - These developmental schemes are mostly addressing the Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) which are targeted to be achieved by 2030. 

The term ‘Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership’ often appears in the news in the context of the affairs of a group of countries known as ______. [UPSC 2016]

Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership (RCEP) Agreement among ASEAN + Six FTA Partners (Australia, China, India, Japan, South Korea and New Zealand): Based on the Declaration of the Leaders during the ASEAN Summit in November 2012, negotiations for a comprehensive economic partnership between the 10 ASEAN member states and its six FTA partners commenced in May 2013. Ten rounds of negotiations have so far been held. The 10th round was held from 8 to16 October 2015 in Busan, Korea. The negotiations cover a number of areas like trade in goods, services, investment, intellectual property, economic and technical cooperation, competition, e-commerce and legal and institutional issues. Papua New Guinea.

Consider the following statements:

1. The International Solar Alliance was launched at the United Nations Climate Change Conference in 2015.
2. The Alliance includes all the member countries of the United Nations.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? [UPSC 2016]

India and France have launched an International Solar Alliance to boost solar energy in developing countries. The initiative was launched at the UN Climate Change Conference in Paris. It will be a common platform for cooperation among solar resource-rich countries lying fully or practically between the Tropics of Cancer and Capricorn. It will not duplicate or replicate the efforts that others (like International Renewable Energy Agency (IRENA), Renewable Energy and Energy Efficiency Partnership (REEEP), International Energy Agency (IEA), Renewable Energy Policy Network for the 21st Century (REN21), United Nations bodies, bilateral organizations etc.) are currently engaged in, but will establish networks and develop synergies with them.

‘Belt and Road Initiative’ is sometimes mentioned in the news in the context of the affairs of ___ [UPSC 2016]

Belt and Road Initiative - It is a developmental strategy and framework, unveiled by Chinese leader Xi Jinping in September and October 2013 in announcements revealing the SREB (Silk Road Economic Belt) and MSR (Maritime Silk Road), respectively. The “belt and road” run through the continents of Asia, Europe and Africa. It focuses on connectivity and cooperation among countries primarily in Eurasia, which consists of two main components, the land-based SREB and oceangoing MSR and it is known as “One Belt One Road”(OBOR). The “belt and road” would be serviced by a network of roads, high-speed railways, fibre-optic lines, transcontinental submarine optical cable projects, and satellite information passageways.

On which of the following can you find the Bureau of Energy Efficiency Star Label?

Select the correct answer using the code given below. [UPSC 2016]

The Bureau initiated the Standards & Labeling programme for equipment and appliances in 2006 to provide the consumer with an informed choice about the energy-saving and thereby the cost-saving potential of the relevant marketed product. The scheme is invoked for 21 equipment/appliances, i.e. Room Air Conditioners, Tubular Fluorescent Tube Lights, Frost Free Refrigerators, Distribution Transformers, Induction Motors, Direct Cool Refrigerator, electric storage type geyser, Ceiling fans, Color TVs, Agricultural pump sets, LPG stoves, Washing machine, Laptops, ballast, floor standing ACs, office automation products, Diesel Generating sets & Diesel pumpsets. 

Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE) : It is a government organisation that aims to develop policies and strategies with a thrust on self regulation and market principles. It promotes energy conservation in different sectors of the economy and undertakes measures against the wasteful uses of electricity.

There has been a persistent deficit budget year after year. Which action/actions of the following can be taken by the Government to reduce the deficit?

Select the correct answer using the code given below. [UPSC 2016]

The budget deficit is used to define a status of financial health in which expenditures exceed revenue. Reducing the revenue expenditure will certainly help in bridging the gap. Subsidies are a part of the expenditure, and rationalizing them would reduce the deficit. Introducing new welfare schemes will most likely result in increased expenditure and so will expanding industries which would require capital infusion. 

The term 'Core Banking Solutions' is sometimes seen in the news. Which of the following statements best describes/describe this term?

1. It is a networking of a bank's branches which enables customers to operate their accounts from any branch of the bank on it's network regardless of where they open their accounts.
2. It is an effort to increase RBI's control over commercial banks through computerization.
3. It is a detailed procedure by which a bank with huge non- performing assets is taken over by another bank.

Select the correct answer using the code given below. [UPSC 2016]

Only statement 1 is correct. Core banking solution enables customers to operate their accounts, and avail banking services from any branch of the bank on CBS network, regardless of where they open and maintain their account. 

With reference to the Agreement at the UNFCCC Meeting in Paris in 2015, which of the following statements is/are correct?

Select the correct answer using the code given below. [UPSC 2016]

1. The Agreement was signed by all the member countries of the UN and it will go into effect in 2017.
2. The Agreement aims to limit the greenhouse gas emissions so that the rise in average global temperature by the end of this century does not exceed 2 °C or even 1.5 °C above pre-industrial levels.
3. Developed countries acknowledged they're historical responsibility in global warming and committed to donate $ 1000 billion a year from 2020 to help developing countries to cope with climate change.

21st Conference of Parties (COP21) also known as the Paris Agreement successfully concluded in Paris under the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC). The agreement is scheduled to go into effect from 2020. Statement 1 is not correct.

One of the main focus of the agreement is to hold the increase in the global average temperature to well below 2°C above pre-industrial level and on driving efforts to limit it even further to 1.5°C. It covers all the crucial areas identified as essential for a comprehensive and balanced agreement, including mitigation, adaptation, loss and damage, finance, technology development and transfer, capacity building and transparency of action and support. A marked departure from the past is the Agreement’s bottom-up approach, allowing each nation to submit its own national plan for reducing greenhouse gas emissions, rather than trying to repeat a top-down approach advocated by the Kyoto Protocol, giving each country an emission reduction target. Statement 3 is not correct.

With reference to ‘Agenda 21’, sometimes seen in the news, consider the following statements:

1. It is a global action plan for sustainable development.
2. It originated in the World Summit on Sustainable Development held in Johannesburg in 2002.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? [UPSC 2016]

Agenda 21 is an action plan of the United Nations (UN) related to sustainable development and was an outcome of the United Nations Conference on Environment and Development (UNCED) held in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil, in 1992. It is a comprehensive blueprint of action to be taken globally, nationally and locally by organizations of the UN, governments, and major groups in every area in which humans directly affect the environment. The number 21 refers to an agenda for the 21st century.

In which of the following regions of India are you most likely to come across the `Great Indian Hornbill’ in its natural habitat? [UPSC 2016]

The great hornbill, a magnificent bird reaching a length of three-and-a-half feet, is distinguished by a big yellow beak with a casque and striking tail feathers the magnificent birds which were a common sight in the Western Ghats are rarely seen, due to deforestation. habitat loss threatens its future, and hunting has depleted populations. It is protected at the highest level under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act, but that can do little to save the habitat.

The term ‘Intended Nationally Determined Contributions’ is sometimes seen in the news in the context of _____. [UPSC 2016]

Intended Nationally Determined Contributions (INDCs) is a term used under the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) for reductions in greenhouse gas emissions that all countries that signed the UNFCCC were asked to publish in the lead up to the 2015 United Nations Climate Change Conference held in Paris, France in December 2015. The INDCs, which lay out the blueprint for tackling climate change, emphasised eight key goals — sustainable lifestyles, cleaner economic development, reducing emission intensity of GDP, increasing the share of non-fossil fuel based electricity, enhancing carbon sink, adaptation and mobilising finance, technology transfer and capacity building.

UPSC 2016 from 2015 news.

With reference to `IFC Masala Bonds’, sometimes seen in the news, which of the statements given below is/are correct?

Select the correct answer using the code given below. [UPSC 2016]

1. The International Finance Corporation, which offers these bonds, is an arm of the World Bank.
2. They are the rupee-denominated bonds and are a source of debt financing for the public and private sector.

Bonds are instruments of debt - typically used by corporates to raise money from investors. Masala bonds have to be explained in the context of Indian corporates raising money from overseas investors. The International Finance Corporation (IFC), the investment arm of the World Bank, issued an Rs. 1,000 crore bond in November last year. 

The purpose of the issue was to fund infrastructure projects in India. Companies including NTPC, Neyveli Lignite Corporation, Power Finance Corporation, Power Trading Corporation and Rural Electrification Corporation are likely to launch these Masala Bonds totalling $1 billion in the next three or four months in the UK to gauge the investor appetite. The tenor of these bonds is likely to be limited to a band of five to seven years, and these are going to be in smaller denominations ranging from $150-250 

The World Bank Group (WBG) consists of five organizations – IBRD, IDA, IFC, MIGA and ICSID. IFC is a member of the World Bank Group (WBG) and at the same time it’s called as the World Bank’s private sector lending arm with a stated objective to ensure that any financing does not result in harm to communities and the environment.

The establishment of ‘Payment Banks’ is being allowed in India to promote financial inclusion. Which of the following statements is/are correct in this context?

Select the correct answer using the code given below. [ UPSC 2016]

1. Mobile telephone companies and supermarket chains that are owned and controlled by residents are eligible to be promoters of Payment Banks.
Payment Banks can issue both credit cards and debit cards.
2. Payment Banks cannot undertake lending activities.

In August 2015, Reserve Bank of India granted 'in-principle' approval to 11 applicants to start payments banks. These include Reliance Industries, Airtel M Commerce Services, Tech Mahindra, Vodafone mpesa, Aditya Birla Nuvo, Department of Posts, Cholamandalam Distribution Services, Fino PayTech, PayTm, National Securities Depository Ltd (NSDL) and Sun Pharma. They can issue debit cards but not credit cards. FDI of 74% is allowed in these banks.

The objective of payments banks is to increase financial inclusion by providing small savings accounts, payment/remittance services to migrant labour, low income households, small businesses, other unorganised sector entities and other users by enabling high volume-low value transactions in deposits and payments/remittance services in a secured technology-driven environment.

• Those who can promote a payments banks can be a non-bank PPIs, NBFCs, corporate’s, mobile telephone companies, super market chains, real sector cooperatives companies and public sector entities. Even banks can take equity in Payments Banks.
• Payments Banks can accept demand deposits (only current account and savings accounts). They would initially be restricted to holding a maximum balance of ₹100,000 per customer. Based on performance, the RBI could enhance this limit.
• The banks can offer payments and remittance services, issuance of prepaid payment instruments, internet banking, functioning as business correspondent for other banks.
• Payments Banks cannot set up subsidiaries to undertake NBFC business.
• As in the case of small banks, other financial and non-financial services activities of the promoters should be ring-fenced.
• The Payments Banks would be required to use the word ‘Payments’ in its name to differentiate it from other banks.
• No credit lending is allowed for Payments Banks.
• The float funds can be parked only in less than one year G-Secs.

By April 2020, a total of 6 Payment Banks were operating in the country.

Which one of the following is a purpose of `UDAY’, a scheme of the Government? [UPSC 2016]

The Union Cabinet had given its approval to a new scheme moved by the Ministry of Power - Ujwal DISCOM Assurance Yojna or UDAY. UDAY provides for the financial turnaround and revival of Power Distribution companies (DISCOMs), and importantly also ensures a sustainable permanent solution to the problem. Under UDAY, state governments will take over 75 per cent of the debt held by their discoms as of September 30, 2015. Half the debt will be taken over in 2015-16 and 25 per cent in 2016-17. The balance 25 per cent of the debt is to be serviced through state government-guaranteed bonds issued by the discoms.

With reference to ‘Initiative for Nutritional Security through Intensive Millets Promotion’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

Select the correct answer using the code given below. [UPSC 2016]

1. This initiative aims to demonstrate the improved production and post-harvest technologies and to demonstrate value addition techniques, in an integrated manner, with a cluster approach.
2. Poor, small, marginal and tribal farmers have a larger stake in this scheme.
3. An important objective of the scheme is to encourage farmers of commercial crops to shift to millet cultivation by offering them free kits of critical inputs of nutrients and micro-irrigation equipment.

It was launched under the Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana in 2011-12 for promotion of millets as Nutri-cereals.

Statement 1 is correct - The Initiative for Nutritional Security through Intensive Millets Promotion aims to demonstrate the improved production and post-harvest technologies in an integrated manner with a cluster approach.

Statement 2 is correct - Millets are mainly grown in regions of low annual rainfall and poor, arid soil. It is poor, small, marginal and tribal farmers, who cannot afford costly irrigation practices, depend on the cultivation of millets. Hence these farmers benefit from the scheme and have a larger stake in this scheme.

Statement 3 is incorrect - “Technology demonstration kits of critical inputs of nutrients and plant protection measures comprising of micro-nutrients (not micro irrigation equipments), fungicides and bio-fertilizers, DAP, urea, potash and pesticides including weedicides at a total cost of Rs. 3,000/- per ha for sorghum, pearl millet and finger millet and Rs. 2,000/- per ha for small millets would be supplied to all the farmers in the units. These kits would be supplied free of cost to the beneficiary farmers subject to the maximum area of 2 hectares. So, statement 3 will actually be wrong, because even though the kits are given free of cost, it does not include micro-irrigation equipments.

The term ‘Base Erosion and Profit Shifting’ is sometimes seen in the news in the context of ____. [UPSC 2016]

Base erosion and profit shifting (BEPS) refers to tax avoidance strategies that exploit gaps and mismatches in tax rules to artificially shift profits to low or no-tax locations. Under the inclusive framework, over 100 countries and jurisdictions are collaborating to implement the BEPS measures and tackle BEPS. Double-tax avoidance treaties and tax-information exchange between member nations are used to curb this practice.

The 2015 final reports of the Organisation for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD)-led project on Base Erosion and Profit Shifting (BEPS) — which refer to the erosion of a nation’s tax base due to the accounting tricks of Multinational Enterprises (MNEs) and the legal but abusive shifting out of profits to low-tax jurisdictions respectively — lays out 15 action points to curb abusive tax avoidance by MNEs. As a participant of this project, India is expected to implement at least some of these measures.

What is/are the purpose/purposes of `District Mineral Foundations’ in India?

Select the correct answer using the code given below. [UPSC 2016]

1. Promoting mineral exploration activities in mineral-rich districts.
2. Protecting the interests of the persons affected by mining operations.
3. Authorizing State Governments to issue licences for mineral exploration.

District Mineral Foundation (DMF) is a trust set up as a non-profit body, in those districts affected by the mining works, to work for the interest and benefit of persons and areas affected by mining related operations. It is funded through the contributions from miners. So, all other statements apart from 2 are wrong.

Setting up of District Mineral Foundations (DMFs) in all districts in the country affected by mining related operations was mandated through the Mines and Minerals (Development & Regulation) Amendment Act, (MMDRA) 2015. It's manner of operation comes under the jurisdiction of the relevant State Government.

With reference to ‘Bitcoins’, sometimes seen in the news, which of the following statements is/are correct?

Select the correct answer using the code given below. [UPSC 2016]

1. Bitcoins are tracked by the Central Banks of the countries.
2. Anyone with a Bitcoin address can send and receive Bitcoins from anyone else with a Bitcoin address.
3. Online payments can be sent without either side knowing the identity of the other.

Bitcoin is a digital currency that is not tied to a bank or government and allows users to spend money anonymously. The coins are created by users who ''mine'' them by lending computing power to verifying other users' transactions. They receive bitcoins in exchange. The coins also can be bought and sold on exchanges with U.S. dollars and other currencies. Bitcoins have become popular because transactions can be made anonymously, making the currency popular with libertarians as well as tech enthusiasts, speculators - and criminals. 

India’s ranking in the ‘Ease of Doing Business Index’ is sometimes seen in the news. Which of the following has declared that ranking? [UPSC 2016]

World bank's Ease of doing business report, India's position has improved from 142 to 130. This is on account of ease of starting a business, dealing with construction permit and getting electricity permits. Now, companies can get connected to the grid and get on with their business, 14 days sooner than before. The number of days it takes to start a new business has gone up marginally from last year, from 28.4 to 29 Credit is one area where India performs poorly and needs to improve. Access to credit and ease of paying taxes has worsened, according to the World Bank’s Doing Business Report 2016.

What is/are the purpose/purposes of the `Marginal Cost of Funds based Lending Rate (MCLR)’ announced by RBI?

Select the correct answer using the code given below. [UPSC 2016]

1. These guidelines help improve the transparency in the methodology followed by banks for determining the interest rates on advances.
2. These guidelines help ensure availability of bank credit at interest rates which are fair to the borrowers as well as the banks.

To ensure better transmission and transparency of rates, the RBI introduced the MCLR framework, under which banks have to calculate their cost of funds based on the latest rates offered on deposits or borrowings. This was to ensure that changes in deposit rates were immediately reflected on banks’ cost of funds. Apart from helping improve the transmission of policy rates into the lending rates of banks, these measures are expected to improve transparency in the methodology followed by banks for determining interest rates on advances. The guidelines are also expected to ensure availability of bank credit at interest rates which are fair to the borrowers as well as the banks. Further, marginal cost pricing of loans will help the banks become more competitive and enhance their long run value and contribution to economic growth.

Which of the following is/are included in the capital budget of the Government of India?

Select the correct answer using the code given below. [UPSC 2016]

The Capital Budget is an account of the assets as well as liabilities of the central government, which takes into consideration changes in capital. It consists of capital receipts and capital expenditure of the government. This shows the capital requirements of the government and the pattern of their financing. 

The main items of capital receipts are loans raised by the government from the public which are called market borrowings, borrowing by the government from the Reserve Bank and commercial banks and other financial institutions through the sale of treasury bills, loans received from foreign governments and international organisations, and recoveries of loans granted by the central government. 

Capital Expenditure: There are expenditures of the government, which result in the creation of physical or financial assets or reduction in financial liabilities. This includes expenditure on the acquisition of land, building, machinery, equipment, investment in shares, and loans and advances by the central government to state and union territory governments, PSUs and other parties.

Which of the following best describes the term ‘import cover’, sometimes seen in the news? [UPSC 2016]

Import cover is an important indicator of the stability of the currency. It measures the number of months of money available in the national bank to cover the cost of imports or the stock of foreign exchange reserves in terms of months of retained imports of goods as at end of year. During the currency crisis of 2013, when foreign exchange reserves fell to around $275 billion, import cover dipped to around seven months. 

Global Financial Stability Report’ is prepared by the ____. [UPSC 2016]

Global Financial Stability Report is published by International Monetary Fund. The financial stability report assesses the risks faced by the global financial system. The latest report released, warns that global output could decline 3.9 per cent by 2021 if action is not taken to address the risks faced by the financial system. The main message of this report is that additional measures are needed to deliver a more balanced and potent policy mix for improving the growth and inflation outlook and securing financial stability.

With reference to the religious history of India, consider the following statements:

1. The concept of Bodhisattva is central to the Hinayana sect of Buddhism.
2. Bodhisattva is a compassionate one on his way to enlightenment.
3. Bodhisattva delays achieving his own salvation to help all sentient beings on their path to it.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? [UPSC 2016]

Statement 1 is incorrect - It is central to the Mahayana sect of Buddhism. In non-Mahayana Buddhism, it usually refers either to Maitreya, the Buddha of the Future or to the historical Buddha Gautama prior to his enlightenment.

Statements 2 and 3 are correct - A bodhisattva is literally a living being (sattva) who aspires to enlightenment (bodhi) and carries out altruistic practices. The bodhisattva ideal is central to the Mahayana Buddhist tradition as the individual who seeks enlightenment both for him- or herself and for others. Clearly, 2 is correct. Compassion, an empathetic sharing of the sufferings of others, is the bodhisattva’s greatest characteristic. It is held that the bodhisattva makes four vows expressing a determination to work for the happiness of others: “However innumerable sentient beings are, I vow to save them; However inexhaustible the passions are, I vow to master them; however limitless the teachings are, I vow to study them; however infinite the Buddha-truth is, I vow to attain it.” Clearly, 3 is correct.

Bodhisattva in Buddhism is one who seeks awakening or enlightenment. This concept is central to the Mahayana sect of Buddhism. In Mahayana Buddhism, bodhisattva refers to a human being committed to the attainment of enlightenment for the sake of others. A Bodhisattva may delay achieving his own salvation to help all sentient beings on their path to it.

The plan of Sir Stafford Cripps envisaged that after the Second World War ____. [UPSC 2016]

Cripps Mission was sent to India under the presidentship of Stafford Cripps in March 1942. The intention was to get Indian support for Britishers in the ongoing World War II.

It proposed:

• An Indian Dominion that will be free to decide its relations with the commonwealth and United Nations.
• A constituent assembly to be convened to frame a new constitution.
• Any province not willing to join the Union could have a separate constitution and form a separate.
• Other points in the proposal were- Acceptance of Indian constitution by the British government would be subject to the condition that any province would have the right to have a separate union and a treaty to be negotiated to affect the power transfer to safeguard racial and religious minorities Defense of f India to remain in British hands.

What was the main reason for the split in the Indian National Congress at Surat in 1907? [UPSC 2016]

Surat Split refers to the splitting of the Congress party into 'Moderates' and 'Extremists' after a clash at the session. The extremists were led by Lokmanya Tilak, Lajpat Rai and Sri Aurobindo and the moderates were led by Gopal Krishna Gokhale, Pherozeshah Mehta and Surendranath Banerjee. The divided Congress re-united in the crucial Lucknow session of congress in 1916.

The 'Swadeshi’ and ‘Boycott’ were adopted as methods of struggle for the first time during the ____. [UPSC 2016]

The Swadeshi and Boycott were adopted as methods of struggle for the first time during the agitation against the Partition of Bengal in Swadeshi movement.

Which of the following is/are the advantage/advantages of practising drip irrigation?

Select the correct answer using the code given below. [UPSC 2016]

Statement 1 is correct - Weeds usually grow in between the plant rows due to availability of moisture on that strip of land. In drip irrigation, water is applied directly to the roots, and not the entire field (thus excluding the land space between plants where weeds usually grow). So, weed growth is inhibited.

Statement 2 is incorrect - There may be some confusion in this statement. Generally, excessive logging and flooded fields suffer from higher salinity. So, replacing conventional irrigation may help in curbing water-logged soil salinity. But, generally speaking, as a rule, we cannot claim that if a drip irrigation system is installed on farmland, it would always reduce soil salinity. Seen in isolation from instances of waterlogging (or other such cases), drip irrigation and soil salinity do not have much co-relation. The system simply delivers water to the roots of the plant. Also, if we use elimination, as 1 and 3 must be correct, there is no option “1, 2 and 3” which automatically tells us that statement 2 is wrong.

Statement 3 is correct - Surface irrigation is a significant contributor to topsoil erosion. Drip irrigation reduces soil erosion as water is delivered directly to plant roots at a very slow rate (unlike surface irrigation where water velocity can be fast).

In 2016, Due to “Per Drop More Crop” component under Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchyee Yojana (PMKSY), Drip irrigation remained regularly in news. Also mentioned in Economic Survey.

Which of the following is/are tributary/tributaries of Brahmaputra?

Select the correct answer using the code given below. [UPSC 2016]

All the given rivers Dibang, Kameng and Lohit are the tributaries of Brahmaputra.

The Brahmaputra, one of the largest rivers of the world, has its origin in the Chemayungdung glacier of the Kailash range near the Mansarovar lake. From here, it traverses eastward longitudinally for a distance of nearly 1,200 km in a dry and flat region of southern Tibet, where it is known as the Tsangpo, which means ‘the purifier.’ The Rango Tsangpo is the major right-bank tributary of this river in Tibet. It emerges as a turbulent and dynamic river after carving out a deep gorge in the Central Himalayas near Namcha Barwa (7,755 m). The river emerges from the foothills under the name of Siang or Dihang. It enters India west of Sadiya town in Arunachal Pradesh. Flowing southwest, it receives its main left-bank tributaries, viz., Dibang or Sikang and Lohit; thereafter, it is known as the Brahmaputra.

‘Net metering’ is sometimes seen in the news in the context of promoting the ______. [UPSC 2016]

Net metering is a billing mechanism that credits solar energy system owners for the electricity they add to the grid, if you generate more energy (from household solar rooftops) then you consume in the home.

In which of the following regions of India are shale gas resources found?

Select the correct answer using the code given below. [UPSC 2016]

Shale gas is the natural gas that is trapped within shale formations. ONGC sought permission for drilling 11 exploratory wells for shale oil and shale gas in Cambay basin at Mehsana, Ahmedabad and Bharuch districts of Gujarat, one well in Cauvery basin at Nagapattinam in Tamil Nadu and five wells in KG Basin at East and West Godavari districts of Andhra Pradesh. Other regions in India where shale gas resources are found - Cauvery, Ganga & Assam and Assam - Arakan; Gondwana basin (including Damodar).

In 2016, it was in the news because this is the first time that the ONGC has taken up shale gas exploration in such a big scale. Also, it first time that it has taken up shale gas exploration in the Krishna-Godavari basin.

Recently, our scientists have discovered a new and distinct species of banana plant which attains a height of about 11 metres and has orange-coloured fruit pulp. In which part of India has it been discovered? [UPSC 2016]

Scientists at the Botanical Survey of India (BSI) discovered the new species of banana from a remote tropical rain forest on the Little Andaman islands. The new species has orange-coloured fruit pulp and is about 11 metres high, whereas the usual banana species is about three to four metres high.

Satya Shodhak Samaj organized _______. [UPSC 2016]

In Poona, Jyotirao Phooley, though a Mali by caste and of comparatively little education started the association called the Satyashodhak Samaj in 1873 for asserting the worth of man irrespective of caste. He demanded representation of all classes of the Hindus in all the local bodies, in services and institutions and also established a primary school for the so-called untouchables in Poona.

The Montague-Chelmsford Proposals were related to ____. [UPSC 2016]

Government of India Act, 1919 was based on what is popularly known as the Montague-Chelmsford Reforms. In August 1917, the British government for the first time declared that its objective was to gradually introduce responsible government in India, but as an integral part of the British Empire. The Act of 1919, clarified that there would be only a gradual development of self-governing institutions in India and that the British Parliament—and not self-determination of the people of India—would determine the time and manner of each step along the path of constitutional progress.

Consider the following pairs: Famous Place/Region

1. Bodhgaya: Baghelkhand
2. Khajuraho: Bundelkhand
3. Shirdi: Vidarbha
4. Nasik (Nashik): Malwa
5. Tirupati: Rayalaseema

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched? [UPSC 2016]

Bagelkhand or Baghelkhand is a region and also a mountain range in central India that covers the northeastern regions of Madhya Pradesh and a small area of western Uttar Pradesh. Bodhgaya is in Bihar.

The Khajuraho group of monuments was built during the rule of the Rajput Chandela dynasty. The building activity started almost immediately after the rise of their power, throughout their kingdom to be later known as Bundelkhand.

Vidarbha is the eastern region of the Indian state of Maharashtra, comprising Nagpur Division and Amravati Division. Shirdi is a town and falls under Ahmednagar District in Maharashtra. It is not in the Vidarbha region.

Tirupati lies in the Rayalaseema region of Andhra Pradesh.

Recently, which of the following States has explored the possibility of constructing an artificial inland port to be connected to the sea by a long navigational channel? [UPSC 2016]

A proposal received from Government of Rajasthan to develop Inland Shipping Port at Jalore which would be connected to the Arabian Sea by developing a channel along the Kutch Creek was discussed by the officers of the Rajasthan Government with the officials of Inland Waterways Authority of India (IWAI). It was decided that a pre-feasibility study be undertaken by the Government of Rajasthan containing all the technical parameters required to assess the possibility of developing the port at Jalore. IWAI has finalized the Terms of Reference for the study, which has been forwarded to Government of Rajasthan for necessary action.

What is/are the importance/importances of the ‘United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification’?

Select the correct answer using the code given below. [UPSC 2016]

1. It aims to promote effective action through innovative national programmes and supportive inter-national partnerships.
2. It has a special/particular focus on South Asia and North Africa regions, and it's Secretariat facilitates the allocation of a major portion of financial resources to these regions.
3. It is committed to the bottom-up approach, encouraging the participation of local people in combating the desertification.

Desertification, along with climate change and the loss of biodiversity, were identified as the greatest challenges to sustainable development during the 1992 Rio Earth Summit. Established in 1994, UNCCD is the sole legally binding international agreement linking environment and development to sustainable land management. The Convention addresses specifically the arid, semi-arid and dry sub-humid areas, known as the drylands, where some of the most vulnerable ecosystems and peoples can be found.

The Convention's 195 parties work together to improve the living conditions for people in drylands, to maintain and restore land and soil productivity, and to mitigate the effects of drought.

The UNCCD is particularly committed to a bottom-up approach, encouraging the participation of local people in combating desertification and land degradation. The UNCCD secretariat facilitates cooperation between developed and developing countries, particularly around knowledge and technology transfer for sustainable land management.

‘Gadgil Committee Report’ and ‘Kasturirangan Committee Report’, sometimes seen in the news, are related to _____. [UPSC 2016]

The Kasturirangan panel was set up to study the Gadgil committee report on the Western Ghats. The Kasturirangan report seeks to bring just 37% of the Western Ghats under the Ecologically Sensitive Area (ESA) zones — down from the 64% suggested by the Gadgil report. Recommended prohibition on development and commercial activities like mining, thermal power plants, polluting industries and large housing plans in Ecologically Sensitive Area (ESA) zones.

Kasturirangan panel was in news in 2016.

With reference to an initiative called ‘The Economics of Ecosystems and Biodiversity (TEEB)’, which of the following statements is/are correct?

Select the correct answer using the code given below. [UPSC 2016]

1. It is an initiative hosted by UNEP, IMF and World Economic Forum.
2. It is a global initiative that focuses on drawing attention to the economic benefits of biodiversity.
3. It presents an approach that can help decision-makers recognize, demonstrate and capture the value of ecosystems and biodiversity.

The initiative on 'The Economics of Ecosystems and Biodiversity' (TEEB) is an important partner in implementing the CBD programme of work on incentive measures and in particular its work on valuation. This major international initiative, funded by the European Commission, Germany, United Kingdom, Norway, the Netherlands and Sweden, and managed by the United Nations Environment Programme as part of its Green Economy Initiative (GEI), seeks to draw attention to the global economic benefits of biodiversity, to highlight the growing costs of biodiversity loss and ecosystem degradation, and to draw together expertise from the fields of science, economics and policy to enable practical actions moving forward. Members of the TEEB Advisory Board include the Executive Director of UNEP, the Executive Secretary of the CBD and the Director-General of IUCN, amongst others.

What is ‘Greenhouse Gas Protocol’? [UPSC 2016]

The Greenhouse Gas (GHG) Protocol, developed by World Resources Institute (WRI) and World Business Council on Sustainable Development (WBCSD), sets the global standard for how to measure, manage, and report greenhouse gas emissions. Many companies and organizations around the world are using GHG Protocol standards and tools to manage their emissions and become more efficient, resilient, and prosperous organizations.

With reference to ‘Organization for the Prohibition of Chemical Weapons (OPCW)’, consider the following statements:

1. It is an organization of European Union in working relation with NATO and WHO.
2. It monitors the chemical industry to prevent new weapons from emerging.
3. It provides assistance and protection to States (Parties) against chemical weapons threats.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? [UPSC 2016]

OPCW is the Hague-based autonomous body, which works within the framework of the United Nations, was established in 1997 by the Chemical Weapons Convention to carry out its mandate.

OBJECTIVES: the OPCW Member States share the collective goal of preventing chemistry from ever again being used for warfare, thereby strengthening international security. To this end, the Convention contains four key provisions:

• destroying all existing chemical weapons under international verification by the OPCW;
• monitoring the chemical industry to prevent new weapons from re-emerging;
• providing assistance and protection to States Parties against chemical threats; and
• fostering international cooperation to strengthen implementation of the Convention and promote the peaceful use of chemistry.

With reference to the cultural history of medieval India, consider the following statements:

1. Siddhas (Sittars) of Tamil region were monotheistic and condemned idolatry.
2. Lingayats of Kannada region questioned the theory of rebirth and rejected the caste hierarchy.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? [UPSC 2016]

The twelfth-century witnessed the emergence of a new movement in Karnataka, led by a Brahmana named Basavanna (1106-68) who was initially a Jaina and a minister in the court of a Chalukya king. His followers were known as Virashaivas (heroes of Shiva) or Lingayats (wearers of the linga). The Lingayats challenged the idea of caste and the “pollution” attributed to certain groups by Brahmanas. They also questioned the theory of rebirth. These won them, followers, amongst those who were marginalised within the Brahmanical social order. Siddhas (Sittars) Saiva school in Tamil Nadu which held the monotheistic puritan creed and roundly condemned idolatry, their history is not known they seem to be known as most active during 16th and 17th century.

Who of the following had first deciphered the edicts of Emperor Ashoka? [UPSC 2016]

The inscriptions of Asoka were first deciphered by James Princep in 1837. They are written in Pali language and in some places Prakrit was used. The Brahmi script was employed for writing. In northwestern India, Asokan inscriptions were found in Karoshti script. There are fourteen Major Rock Edicts. The two Kalinga Edicts are found in the newly conquered territory. The major pillar Edicts were erected in important cities. There are minor Rock Edicts and minor pillar Edicts. These Edicts of Asoka deal with Asoka’s Dhamma and also instructions were given to his officials. The XIII Rock Edict gives details about his war with Kalinga. The Pillar Edict VII gives a summary of his efforts to promote the Dhamma within his kingdom. Thus the Asokan inscriptions remain valuable sources for the study of Asoka and the Mauryan Empire.

Consider the following:

1. Calcutta Unitarian Committee
2. Tabernacle of New Dispensation
3. Indian Reform Association

Keshab Chandra Sen is associated with the establishment of which of the above? [UPSC 2016]

Raja Ram Mohan Roy along with Dwarka Nath Tagore and William Adam established Calcutta Unitarian committee and 1823. Keshubh Chandra was not associated with it.

On 24th January 1868, Keshab laid the foundation stone of his new church, the Brahmo Samaj of India Tabernacle of New Dispensation and the newly constructed chapel was consecrated on 22nd August 1869.

Which one of the following books of ancient India has the love story of the son of the founder of Sunga dynasty?

Kalidasa is the most distinguished dramatist and his treatment of the rasa of love in all its possible manifestations in the three plays Malavikagnimitra (Malavika and Agnimitra), Vikramorvasiya (Vikram and Urvasi) and Abhigyana Shakuntala (the recognition of Shakuntala) is unparalleled. He is the poet of love and beauty and believes in the affirmation of life, the joy of which lies in pure, sacred and ever-widening love.

With reference to the economic history of medieval India, the term 'Araghatta’ refers to __________. [UPSC 2016]

The 'ara-ghatta' originates from the blend of the words "ara" which means talked and "ghatta" which means pot. There is a confirmation to contend that this arrangement of lifting water from open wells was presumably designed in India of the past.

Which of the following are the key features of ‘National Ganga River Basin Authority (NGRBA)?

Select the correct answer using the code given below. [UPSC 2016]

1. River basin is the unit of planning and management.
2. It spearheads the river conservation efforts at the national level.
3. One of the Chief Ministers of the States through which the Ganga flows becomes the Chairman of NGRBA on a rotation basis.

The Central Government set up the ‘National Ganga River Basin Authority’ (NGRBA) in 2009 and mandated it to take up regulatory and developmental functions with sustainability needs for effective abatement of pollution and conservation of the river Ganga by adopting a river basin approach for comprehensive planning and management. The Ministry of Water Resources, River Development and Ganga Rejuvenation (MoWR, RD & GR) are the nodal Ministry for the NGRBA. The authority is chaired by the Prime Minister and has as its members the Union Ministers concerned, the Chief Ministers of the States through which Ganga flows, viz., Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand and West Bengal, among others. This initiative is expected to rejuvenate the collective efforts of the Centre and the States for cleaning the river.

NGRBA functions include the development of a Ganga River Basin Management Plan, regulation of activities aimed at prevention, control and abatement of pollution, to maintain water quality and to take measures relevant to the river ecology in the Ganga basin states. It is mandated to ensure the maintenance of minimum ecological flows in the river Ganga and abate pollution through planning, financing and execution of programmes including that of

1) Augmentation of Sewerage Infrastructure

2) Catchment Area Treatment

3) Protection of Flood Plains

4) Creating Public Awareness

Consider the following pairs: Terms sometimes seen in the news/Their origin

1. Annex-I Countries: Cartagena Protocol
2. Certified Emissions Reductions: Nagoya Protocol
3. Clean Development Mechanisms: Kyoto Protocol

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched? [UPSC 2016]

The Clean Development Mechanism (CDM), created multilaterally under the UNFCCC is one of the mitigation instruments under the Kyoto Protocol. The Clean Development Mechanism (CDM), defined in Article 12 of the Protocol, allows a country with an emission-reduction or emission-limitation commitment under the Kyoto Protocol (Annex B Party) to implement an emission-reduction project in developing countries. Such projects can earn saleable certified emission reduction (CER) credits, each equivalent to one tonne of CO2, which can be counted towards meeting Kyoto targets. Annex-I countries are parties to the Kyoto protocol. 

With reference to ‘stand up India scheme’, which of the following statement is/are correct?

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. Its purpose is to promote entrepreneurship among SC/ST and women entrepreneurs.
2. It provides for refinancing through SIDBI.

Straight forward question. The scheme promotes entrepreneurship among SC/ST and Women entrepreneurs, and facilitates at least two such projects per bank branch. The Stand Up India Scheme provides for refinance window through Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI) with an initial amount of Rs. 10,000 crore. So, statement 2 is correct.

With reference to the International Monetary and Financial Committee (IMFC), consider the following statements:

1. IMFC discusses matters of concern affecting the global economy, and advises the International Monetary Fund (IMF) on the direction of it's  work.
2. The World Bank participates as observer in IMFC’s meetings.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? [UPSC 2016]

The IMFC advises and reports to the IMF Board of Governors on the supervision and management of the international monetary and financial system, including on responses to unfolding events that may disrupt the system although the IMFC has no formal decision-making powers, in practice, it has become a key instrument for providing strategic direction to the work and policies of the IMF. A number of international institutions, including the World Bank, participate as observers in the IMFC’s meetings.

With reference to ‘Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana’, consider the following statements:

1. Under this scheme, farmers will have to pay a uniform premium of two percent for any crop they cultivate in any season of the year.
2. This scheme covers post-harvest losses arising out of cyclones and unseasonal rains.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? [UPSC 2016]

Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY) is the new crop damage insurance scheme that has been approved by the Union Cabinet in January 2016. It will replace the existing two crop insurance schemes National Agricultural Insurance Scheme (NAIS) and Modified NAIS. The new scheme will come into force from the Kharif season starting in June this year.

One of the highlights included there will be a uniform premium of only 2% to be paid by farmers for all Kharif crops and 1.5% for all Rabi crops. In case of annual commercial and horticultural crops, the premium to be paid by farmers will be only 5%.

Also POST-HARVEST LOSSES includes (individual farm basis): Coverage is available upto a maximum period of 14 days from harvesting for those crops which are kept in "cut & spread" condition to dry in the field after harvesting, against specific perils of cyclone / cyclonic rains, unseasonal rains throughout the country. Hence only statement 2 is correct.

Regarding DigiLocker’, sometimes seen in the news, which of the following statements is/are correct?

Select the correct answer using the code given below. [UPSC 2016]

1. It is a digital locker system offered by the Government under Digital India Programme.
2. It allows you to access your e-documents irrespective of your physical location.

Digital Locker is one of the key initiatives under the Digital India Programme. Digital Locker is aimed at minimising the usage of physical documents and enable sharing of e-documents across agencies.

With reference to ‘Financial Stability and Development Council’, consider the following statements:

1. It is an organ of NITI Aayog.
2. It is headed by the Union Finance Minister.
3. It monitors macro-prudential supervision of the economy.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Statement 1 is incorrect - With a view to strengthening and institutionalizing the mechanism for maintaining financial stability, enhancing inter-regulatory coordination and promoting financial sector development, the Financial Stability and Development Council (FSDC) was set up by the Government as the apex level forum in December 2010 (much before NITI AAyog was even setup).

Statement 2 is correct - The Chairman of the Council is the Finance Minister, and it's members include the heads of financial sector Regulators (RBI, SEBI, PFRDA, IRDA & FMC) Finance Secretary and/or Secretary, Department of Economic Affairs, Secretary, Department of Financial Services, and Chief Economic Adviser.

Statement 3 is correct - Without prejudice to the autonomy of regulators, the Council monitors macro-prudential supervision of the economy, including the functioning of large financial conglomerates, and addresses inter-regulatory coordination and financial sector development issues. It also focuses on financial literacy and financial inclusion.

What is/are the purpose/purposes of Government’s ‘Sovereign Gold Bond Scheme’ and ‘Gold Monetization Scheme’?

Select the correct answer using the code given below. [UPSC 2016]

The government had launched three ambitious schemes to reduce the physical demand for gold and fish out 20,000 tonnes of the precious metal worth $800 billion lying idle with households. PM launched the maiden sovereign gold bond, gold monetisation and the Indian gold coin scheme. The main objectives of the schemes is to reduce India's gold imports and bring all the gold lying idle with individuals and households.

The scheme doesn’t intend to bring FDI in gold and jewellery sector, and by eliminating this only possible answers you have are either A or C. Both schemes aim at reducing physical demand of gold and thus bring down gold imports which clearly tell us that the answer must be C.

Pradhan Mantri MUDRA Yojana is aimed at ___. [UPSC 2016]

As per the Government of India, large industries provide employment to only 1.25 crore people in the country while the micro units employ around 12 crore people. There is a need to focus on these 5.75 crore self-employed people (owners of the micro units) who use funds of ₹11 lakh crore, with an average per unit debt of merely ₹17,000. Capital is the key to the small entrepreneurs. These entrepreneurs depend heavily on the local money lenders for their fund requirements.

Looking at the importance of these enterprises, the Government of India launched (April 2015) the Micro Units Development and Refinance Agency Bank (MUDRA Bank) with the aim of funding these unfunded non-corporate enterprises. This was launched as the PMMY (Prime Minister Mudra Yojana)

In the context of which of the following do you sometimes find the terms `amber box, blue box and green box’ in the news? [UPSC 2016]

In WTO terminology, subsidies, in general, are identified by "Boxes" which are given the colours of traffic lights: green (permitted), amber (slow down — i.e. be reduced), red (forbidden).

In agriculture, things are, as usual, more complicated. The Agriculture Agreement has no Red Box, although domestic support exceeding the reduction commitment levels in the Amber Box is prohibited; and there is a Blue Box for subsidies that are tied to programmes that limit production. 

The 'amber box': For agriculture, all domestic support measures considered to distort production and trade (with some exceptions) fall into the amber box. 

The 'green box': To qualify for the "green box", a subsidy must not distort trade, or at most cause minimal distortion. These subsidies have to be government-funded (not by charging consumers higher prices) and must not involve price support. 

The 'blue box': The blue box is an exemption from the general rule that all subsidies linked to production must be reduced or kept within defined minimal ("de minimis") levels. It covers payments directly linked to acreage or animal numbers, but under schemes which also limit production by imposing production quotas or requiring farmers to set aside part of their land. Countries using these subsidies - and there is only a handful - say they distort trade less than alternative amber box subsidies. Currently, the only members notifying the WTO that they are using or have used the blue box are: the EU, Iceland, Norway, Japan, the Slovak Republic, Slovenia, and the US (now no longer using the box)

Banjaras during the medieval period of Indian history were generally ___________. [UPSC 2016]

There were many kinds of traders in medieval period these included the Banjaras. They were the most important trader nomads. Their caravan was called tanda. Sultan Alauddin Khalji used the Banjaras to transport grain to the city markets. Emperor Jahangir wrote in his memoirs that the Banjaras carried grain on their bullocks from different areas and sold it in towns. They transported food grain for the Mughal army during military campaigns. With a large army, there could be 100,000 bullocks carrying grain.

What is/are unique about ‘Kharai Camel’, a breed found in India?

Select the correct answer using the code given below. [UPSC 2016]

The Kharai camel grazes on mangroves and is tolerant to saline water. It is found only in Gujarat’s coastal areas. It is capable of swimming up to three kilometres into the sea in search of mangroves.

Statement 3 is incorrect - It can be domesticated. Given the breed’s ability to survive both on land and sea, the Kharai camel is one of the most preferred choices of graziers in the arid coastal region of Kachchh. People consume their milk, while male calves are sold for economic returns.

`SWAYAM’, an initiative of the Government of India, aims at _____ [UPSC 206]

Study Webs of Active Learning for Young Aspiring Minds (SWAYAM), is a Web portal where Massive Open On-line Courses (MOOCs) will be available on all kinds of subjects. SWAYAM is the Indian electronic e-education platform which proposes to offer courses from the high school stage to Post-Graduate stage in an interactive electronic platform. The IT platform for SWAYAM is going to be built and is expected to be operationalized by 31st March 2016 with a capacity to host nearly 2,000 courses.

In news, because of Massive Open Online Courses (MOOC) are fast gaining popularity among students and working professional s as they help them study at their convenience and time. Websites such as edX and Coursera enlist free online courses from various institutes across the world.

With reference to ‘Red Sanders’, sometimes seen in the news, consider the following statements:

1. It is a tree species found in a part of South India.
2. It is one of the most important trees in the tropical rain forest areas of South India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? [UPSC 2016]

Red Sanders, botanical name Pterocarpus santalinus, is a non-fragrant variety of sandalwood that mostly grows in rocky, hilly regions. Saplings reach 8 to 10 m in 3- 4 years, but growth slows down after that. The trunks are slender, and it takes at least 20-25 years for the tree’s beautiful, deep redwood to be of use. It is found in the thorny scrub/dry deciduous forests of the central Deccan, between 500 ft and 3000 ft. only in a small pocket roughly 5,200 sq km in the Palakonda and Seshachalam hills in the districts of Kadapa and Chittoor, in some contiguous areas of Anantapur district, in the Nallamalla forests in Kurnool and Prakasam, and in parts of Nellore district. Some contiguous patches in Tamil Nadu and Karnataka see some wild growth. Red Sanders is a protected species under the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species (CITES) of Wild Fauna and Flora.

Recently, for the first time in our country, which of the following States has declared a particular butterfly as ‘State Butterfly’? [UPSC 2016]

The Blue Mormon is a large, swallowtail butterfly found primarily in Sri Lanka and India, mainly restricted to the Western Ghats of Maharashtra, South India and coastal belts. It may occasionally be spotted in the Maharashtrian mainland between Vidarbha and Western Maharashtra. It is reportedly the second-largest butterfly found in India, just smaller than the southern birdwing. Not uncommon. Not thought to be threatened. Occurs throughout the year but more common in the monsoon and immediately after it. Maharashtra has become the first state in the country to have a ‘State butterfly.’

What is/are common to the two historical places known as Ajanta and Mahabalipuram?

Select the correct answer using the code given below. [UPSC 2016]

Statement 1 is incorrect - As per ASI Website, “While there is some evidence of architectural activity going back to the period of Mahendravarman-I (AD 600-30), the father of Mamalla, most of the monuments are attributed to the period of Narasimhavarman-I Mamalla (AD 630-68) – the Pallava ruler. On the other hand, Ajanta caves were excavated in different periods (circa. 2nd century B.C. to 6th century A.D.) according to the necessity. So, clearly, 1 is wrong.

Statement 2 is incorrect - Mahabalipuram contains rock-cut rathas, sculptured scenes on open rocks like Arjuna’s penance, the caves of Govardhanadhari and Mahishasuramardini, the Jala-Sayana Perumal temple (the sleeping Mahavishnu or Chakrin at the rear part of the Shore temple complex). So, it is more linked to the Vaishnavites. On the other hand, Ajanta is linked more to the Buddhist religious denomination. Statement 2 is also wrong.

Statement 3 is correct - Both have rock-cut monuments because cave cut Chaityas, Viharas and Stupas can be clearly seen at Ajanta. Also, the mural paintings that are made at Ajanta involve some rock-cutting as per ASI. Mahabalipuram is famous for rock monuments as described above. Only 3 is correct.

With reference to the cultural history of India, the memorizing of chronicles, dynastic histories and Epic tales was the profession of who of the following?[UPSC 2016]

Excerpts from Romila Thapar, Ancient India, “The memorizing of chronicles, dynastic histories, or epic tales was the work of a group of people, the Sutas and Magadhas.”

The FAO accords the status of ‘Globally Important Agricultural Heritage System (GIAHS)’ to traditional agricultural systems. What is the overall goal of this initiative?

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

Statement 1 is incorrect - To safeguard and support the world’s agricultural heritage systems, in 2002 FAO started an initiative for the dynamic conservation of Globally Important Agricultural Heritage Systems (GIAHS). So, modern practices wouldn’t be relevant to the initiative. Statement 1 is incorrect.

Statement 2 is correct - The initiative intends to safeguard the social, cultural, economic and environmental goods and services of these heritage systems.

Statement 3 is correct - There is no such provision. GI is accorded to products from a certain origin (e.g. Hyderabadi Biryani) and not to traditional agricultural systems.

‘Project Loon’, sometimes seen in the news, is related to _______. [UPSC 2016]

Project Loon is a research and development project being developed by Google X with the mission of providing Internet access to rural and remote areas. The project uses high-altitude balloons placed in the stratosphere at an altitude of about 18 km (11 mi) to create an aerial wireless network with up to 4G-LTE speeds. By partnering with Telecommunications companies to share cellular spectrum Google is trying to enable people to connect to the balloon network directly from their phones and other LTE-enabled devices. Microsoft is planning to use the unused TV spectrum to provide internet access in remote areas.

Which of the following is/are the indicator/ indicators used by IFPRI to compute the Global Hunger Index Report?

1. Undernourishment

2. Child stunting

3. Child mortality

Select the correct answer using the code given below. [UPSC 2016]

The Global Hunger Index (GHI) is designed to comprehensively measure and track hunger globally and by country and region. Calculated each year by the International Food Policy Research Institute (IFPRI), the GHI highlights successes and failures in hunger reduction and provides insights into the drivers of hunger. By raising awareness and understanding of regional and country differences in hunger, the GHI aims to trigger actions to reduce hunger. To reflect the multidimensional nature of hunger, the GHI combines the following four component indicators into one index:

1. Undernourishment: the proportion of undernourished people as a percentage of the population (reflecting the share of the population whose caloric intake is insufficient;
2. Child wasting: the proportion of children under the age of five who suffer from wasting (that is, low weight for their height, reflecting acute undernutrition);
3. Child stunting: the proportion of children under the age of five who suffer from stunting (that is, low height for their age, reflecting chronic undernutrition); and
4. Child mortality: the mortality rate of children under the age of five (partially reflecting the fatal synergy of inadequate nutrition and unhealthy environments). 

Which one of the following is the best description of ‘INS Astradharini’, that was in the news recently? [UPSC 2016]

INS Astradharini is India’s first totally indigenously designed (95%) and built torpedo launch and recovery vessel (TLRV).

‘European Stability Mechanism’, sometimes seen in the news, is an _________. [UPSC 2016]

The European Stability Mechanism is a European Union agency that provides financial assistance, in the form of loans, to eurozone countries or as new capital to banks in difficulty.

A recent movie titled The Man Who Knew Infinity is based on the biography of ______. [UPSC 2016]

The Man Who Knew Infinity’, the movie is based on a book by the same name written by Robert Kanigel on the life and times of Ramanujan. The 46th IFFI opened with the film.

‘Rashtriya Garima Abhiyaan’ is a national campaign to ______________. [UPSC 2016]

The campaign has started in 2001 known as ‘Rashtriya Garima Abhiyan’, (National Campaign for Dignity and Elimination of Manual Scavenging) has proven to be a very innovative and effective program to eliminate manual scavenging practice. The campaign has liberated 11,000 women manual scavengers in various parts of India and urged them to give up this caste-based, unconstitutional practice. In its efforts campaign attain social, economic, political and cultural rehabilitation of Manual Scavenger.

Consider the following statements: The India-Africa Summit

1. held in 2015 was the third such Summit.

2. was actually initiated by Jawaharlal Nehru in 1951.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? [UPSC 2016]

The 3rd India-Africa summit was held in New Delhi in October 2015. The previous two gatherings were held in 2008 in New Delhi and in 2011 in Addis Ababa.

In the context of the history of India, consider the following pairs: Term/Description

1. Eripatti: Land, revenue from which was set apart for the maintenance of the village tank.
2. Taniyurs: Villages donated to a single Brahmin or a group of Brahmins.
3. Ghatikas: Colleges generally attached to the temples.

Which of the pairs given above correctly matched? [UPSC 2016]

Eripatti was a special category of land known in South India. This land was donated by individuals, revenue from which was set apart for the maintenance of the village tank.

Taniyur, is a large village under Chola administrative division.

Land grants and generous donations were given to educational institutions like Ghatikas and Mathas. Mathas were residential schools for early education in Pallava kingdoms.

Regarding 'Atal Pension Yojana', which of the following statements is/are correct?

1. It is a minimum guaranteed pension scheme mainly targeted at unorganized sector workers.
2. Only one member of a family can join the scheme.
3. Same amount of pension is guaranteed for the spouse for life after the subscriber's death.

Select the correct answer using the code given below. [UPSC 2016]

Statements 1 and 3 are correct: To address the longevity risks among the workers in the unorganised sector and to encourage the workers in the unorganised sector to voluntarily save for their retirement, APY was launched.

Statement 2 is not correct: Atal Pension Yojana (APY) is open to all bank account holders who are not members of any statutory social security scheme. It doesn't bar the number of family members from a family.

Atal Pension Yojana (APY) addresses the old age income security of the working poor and the longevity risks among the workers in the unorganised sector. It encourages the workers in the unorganised sector to voluntarily save for their retirement. The Government had launched the scheme with effect from 1st June 2015. The scheme replaces the Swavalamban Yojana / NPS Lite scheme. It is Government of India Scheme, which is administered by the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority. The Institutional Architecture of NPS would be utilised to enrol subscribers under APY.